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Standing-Wave Current vs Traveling-Wave Current
Keith Dysart wrote:
On Dec 30, 9:42 am, Cecil Moore wrote: Bottom line: At points '+' in the example before any cutting, either reflections exist or they don't. If reflections exist, there has to exist an impedance discontinuity to cause the reflections. There is no impedance discontinuity. If reflections don't exist, there is nothing to change the direction of the flowing energy. Therefore, energy is flowing both ways through the '+' points. Now there's a bit of a pickle. You previously agreed that P(x,t) = V(x,t) * I(x,t) but now you claim that there is energy flowing. No pickle at all. Any rational person would agree that if we have 10 joules flowing in one direction and 10 joules flowing in the other direction that the *NET* power is zero and the *NET* energy flow is zero. When you look at yourself in the mirror, there is just as much energy flowing toward the mirror as is flowing away from the mirror yet you see your image. Do you really think that the EM waves flowing toward the mirror are interacting with the EM waves flowing away from the mirror? But it is easily proven that energy is flowing from one SGCL to the other. It would be wonderful if you could provide this easy PROOF since such a proof would settle the question. I already presented the proof. Establish a data transfer between the signal generator and the other resistor and then cut the connection. If you assert that the data connection doesn't go away, I feel sorry for you. If the purpose of your argument is to confuse, confound, and obfuscate, I fully understand why you are presenting it. If your goal is technical knowledge, then your approach is pathological. -- 73, Cecil http://www.w5dxp.com |
Standing-Wave Current vs Traveling-Wave Current
On Dec 30, 10:30*am, Cecil Moore wrote:
Keith Dysart wrote: No need for translation, though this is not quite what was said above. Note the words "automatically" in the first quote and "may be quite different" in the second. The original authors allow for the possibility that it might be the same, while your "translation" removes that possibility. They engaged in typical author-speak. I think not. They wrote with precision in an attempt to prevent themselves being quoted out of context. It didn't work, or course. My university professors had no such limitations. They were quite harsh on anyone who tried to figure out where the power goes inside a Thevenin or Norton equivalent source. It is not I who wants it both ways. For me it is clear that there is no reflection when the output (source) impedance is the same as Z0. And when it is not equal to Z0, there is a reflection. Apparently that is NOT clear to you. In the earlier example, there is no impedance discontinuity at the '+' points, yet you require reflections at those points. That's what you cannot have both ways. If there's no traveling wave energy flowing through the '+' points, there must exist reflections. Well, there is no energy flowing through the '+' points. And I have no issue if you wish to claim that there are reflections at these points, though I might use 'bouncing' to differentiate from reflections occuring at points with non-zero reflection coefficients. If reflections exist, there must exist an impedance discontinuity. There is no impedance discontinuity. You do seem to be trying to have it both ways. No energy is flowing (q.v. IEEE definition of instantaneous power), and yet you want energy to be flowing. Not when the output (source) impedance is known. It is then easy to compute the magnitude of the reflection using the standard rules for reflection coeficient. Although many have tried to prove that the output (source) impedance is the impedance encountered by the reflected waves, all of those numerous experiments have failed. You, Cecil, are the only one who believes this. Any good book on transmission lines will tell you otherwise. Therefore, there is a high probability that the impedance encountered by the reflected waves is *NOT* the output (source) impedance. The argument has raged loud and long since at least the 1980's. You are not going to resolve it by hand-waving. Keith, if you can prove that the reflected waves encounter the output (source) impedance, you are a better man than all of the many others who have tried and failed. Web references and Spice models which agree that "the output (source) impedance is the impedance encountered by the reflected waves" have been previously provided, but you refused to explore them. If I recall correctly, this was because they did not model the complexity of an average ham transmitter so they were not of interest to you. Since you have refused to explore the question, you should refrain from making pronouncements. ...Keith |
Standing-Wave Current vs Traveling-Wave Current
Keith Dysart wrote:
My model requires nothing of EM waves, in-so-far-as it is completely described in terms of charge. Just the basics for current flow. Yes, I agree. Your model doesn't even require the EM waves to obey the laws of physics. It's a lot like my mother's model which requires only God. -- 73, Cecil http://www.w5dxp.com |
Standing-Wave Current vs Traveling-Wave Current
On Dec 30, 2:33*pm, Cecil Moore wrote:
Roger wrote: The "perfect voltage source" controls or better, overwhelms any effect that might be caused by the reflected wave. *It completely defeats any argument or description about reflected waves. The impedance of the perfect voltage source is supposed to be zero. The impedance of a perfect voltage source IS zero. How close humans can come to achieving such a device depends largely on the budget. Bench power supplies come quite close within their current limits and single quadrant operation. Spending more money will get you closer. The fact that 0 can not be achieved does not detract from their utility to assist understanding. I, like you, suspect that is a complete impossibility. What I would like to see is a TV signal fed through a source only to emerge unscathed on the other side and viewable on a TV screen without distortion just as the theory predicts. A voltage source has two sides? Explain! ...Keith |
Standing-Wave Current vs Traveling-Wave Current
Cecil Moore wrote:
Roger wrote: If the impedance of the perfect source is zero, what limits the power output from the source? Exactly, just make the output impedance zero and the perfect source will deliver infinite power. Does that sound like it is related to reality? I think I would say it differently. I would describe the "perfect voltage source" as a variable impedance, constant voltage source, with all the impedance supplied by external loads. To my thinking, to define the perfect voltage source as having no impedance, and then using "no impedance" as an excuse to assign a negative reflection factor so that voltage from another source is inverted, is beyond belief. Not reality at all, as you say. I can accept the concept of infinite power, and recognize the impossibility at the same time. It would do very bad things to a real circuit! However, I can see the dilemma faced by a purist who sees 2v from a reflected wave (because the reflected wave has returned to the source and reflected as if it were an open end) and the 1v from the source at exactly the same location. Something must be wrong. I don't recall any examples using perfect CURRENT sources. I think a perfect current source would supply a signal that could respond to changing impedances correctly. It should solve the dilemma caused by the rise in voltage which occurs when when a traveling wave doubles voltage upon encountering an open circuit, or reversing at the source. What do you think? 73, Roger, W7WKB |
Standing-Wave Current vs Traveling-Wave Current
On Sun, 30 Dec 2007 12:28:29 -0800, Roger wrote:
When we define both the source voltage and the source impedance, we also define the source power. Two of the three variables in the power equation are defined, so power is defined. Hi Roger, I see a free mixing of "perfect" voltage and current sources, source impedances, black boxes, and what appears (above) to be a forced presumption of source power. As is typical within these debates, something must be broken. For one, these "perfect" sources paired with an impedance specification necessarily describes a Thenvenin source (for some reason, no one sees the elephant in their living room here). For every Thevenin source, there is an equivalent Norton source; that, for either hidden within a black box, is indistinguishable from the other. Given this equivalency, the forced power presumption collapses. Power in the black box (if in fact that is the intent of this coy "perfection") cannot be known. 73's Richard Clark, KB7QHC |
Standing-Wave Current vs Traveling-Wave Current
On Sun, 30 Dec 2007 12:40:31 -0800, Roger wrote:
If the impedance of the perfect source is zero, what limits the power output from the source? Hi Roger, What does it matter? If the limit is supplied by the load, then the perfect source has evolved into a real source as soon as the circuit has been defined. That is a stretch of the imagination as real sources don't have any of the characteristics of a fictitious "perfect" source. 73's Richard Clark, KB7QHC |
Standing-Wave Current vs Traveling-Wave Current
On Sun, 30 Dec 2007 14:21:44 -0800 (PST), Keith Dysart
wrote: A voltage source has two sides? Explain! The In side, and the Out side. |
Standing-Wave Current vs Traveling-Wave Current
Keith Dysart wrote:
On Dec 30, 9:51 am, Cecil Moore wrote: Roger wrote: Roy Lewallen wrote: Yes, that is correct. The impedance of the source (a perfect voltage source) is zero, so the reflection coefficient seen by the reverse traveling wave is -1. The logic of this assumption eludes me. In fact, it seems completely illogical and counter to the concept of how voltage and current waves are observed to move on a transmission line. The reflection coefficient for a short is -1, is it not? One way of viewing a short is that it is a perfect voltage source (i.e. 0 output impedance) set to 0 volts. Good point. The power disappears here, but energy transfer is evident (we have current). We both have power and do not have power. At the source, when the reflect wave returns and re-reflects, we have 2v from the reflected wave matched with 1v from the source. We have both 1v and 2v. OK. Setting it to some other voltage (or function describing the voltage) does not alter its output impedance. It there fore creates the same reflection of the travelling wave, regardless of the voltage function it is generating. A real world voltage source has an output impedance. Use this impedance to compute the reflection coefficient. The reflection will be the same regardless of the voltage function being generated by the source. ...Keith Thanks for pointing out the short circuit voltage view. I had not thought of that. What would you think of using a perfect current source for these thought experiments? My suggested perfect current source would supply only as much current as could be absorbed by the load, so no power would be used by the source, and current would be limited by the load. 73, Roger, W7WKB |
Standing-Wave Current vs Traveling-Wave Current
On 30 Dec, 14:13, Cecil Moore wrote:
Keith Dysart wrote: My model requires nothing of EM waves, in-so-far-as it is completely described in terms of charge. Just the basics for current flow. Yes, I agree. Your model doesn't even require the EM waves to obey the laws of physics. It's a lot like my mother's model which requires only God. -- 73, Cecil *http://www.w5dxp.com Cecil For $5.00 I can start another thread and take Richard away from bothering you ! Art |
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