"Tarmo Tammaru" wrote in message ...

How does this allow for the sum of V+ and V- to be 0? That is what you
have
across a short.


This is the correct answer, you just interpret it incorrectly.

The reflection coefficient is defined as the reflected voltage
divided by the incident voltage. Sure, the voltage is zero right at
the short, but there is a reflected voltage wave that moves back
towards the generator.

When you have a short, the phase is flipped 180 degrees, which is
exactly what the -1 means. Notice if you had a Zl=infinity, that the
RC would be +1, which would be full reflections INPHASE with the
generator, or in phase with the incident voltage wave.

It's very simple stuff, but many people don't understand this.

That's the whole point. By the conjugate formula RC is *not* -1. It is -1
with a phase angle. I agree it works for an open circuit, since you can
divide both sides by Zl, and anything divided by infinity is 0


It was clear that you misunderstood what the -1 meant.

Ok, -1 with a phase angle. I believe it, if the Zo is complex.
The point is that the ratio of the reflected to incident voltage is
one, and has nothing to with the DC voltage measured at the short
itself.

-1 with a phase angle would simply be 180 degrees phase shift,
plus or minus and additional angle.




I want you to tell me the significance of the fact that the
normalized load impedance Zn=Zr/Zo does NOT have the same angle as Zr
because Zo is complex in the general case. And how the example you
sent me may make be incorrect for this discussion.


Slick