Ian White, G3SEK wrote:
I don't know what the full detailed explanation is. But I do know that,
in order to be correct for all possible cases, it *must* include the
feature that as the physical dimensions of the coil tend towards zero,
the difference in current between its two ends falls towards zero also.
Any "explanation" that denies this fundamental physical fact is
guar-an-teed to be wrong.

So let's agree on that, and then we can move forward to find an
explanation.

OK, let's agree on that and take another look at the example I just presented
on another thread involving half a dipole.

wire coil wire
---------------////---------------
22.5 deg ? deg 22.5 deg

Assuming a lumped inductance, presumably the current into the coil will have
the same phase as the current out of the coil. Zero phase shift through the
coil means this antenna has the same current phasing as a 40m dipole used on
75m, i.e. the feedpoint current is at a current minimum point. We know that
is NOT the case in reality. So what's the answer?
--
73, Cecil http://www.qsl.net/w5dxp



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