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#1
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On Tue, 27 Sep 2005 02:04:46 GMT, Cecil Moore wrote:
The transmission line length must only be long enough such that the V/I ratio is forced to the Z0 value. According to some pretty smart guys I asked, that's about 2% of a wavelength. Cecil, do you have some quantitative explanation / support for this? The treatments that I have seen of transmission line tuners where different Zo lines are directly connected do not suggest corrections / tolerances of the type you imply. (IIRC, Terman discusses a fringing capacitance as a means of allowing for a physical discontinuity.) I am not asking whether or not field conditions (and V/I on the conductors) immediate to the discontinuity are not Zo of either of the lines, just where has the 2% of a wavelength come from? Owen -- |
#2
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![]() Owen Duffy wrote: On Tue, 27 Sep 2005 02:04:46 GMT, Cecil Moore wrote: The transmission line length must only be long enough such that the V/I ratio is forced to the Z0 value. According to some pretty smart guys I asked, that's about 2% of a wavelength. Cecil, do you have some quantitative explanation / support for this? The treatments that I have seen of transmission line tuners where different Zo lines are directly connected do not suggest corrections / tolerances of the type you imply. (IIRC, Terman discusses a fringing capacitance as a means of allowing for a physical discontinuity.) I am not asking whether or not field conditions (and V/I on the conductors) immediate to the discontinuity are not Zo of either of the lines, just where has the 2% of a wavelength come from? Owen As I recall it came from someone on sci.physics.electromag. But think about it. The surge impedance (Zo) is basically just the ratio of the capacitance per unit length to the inductance per unit length. Those quantities might vary a little bit from one place to another, but probably not by much. And there are undoubtedly end effects which locally pull the capacitance and inductance values away from the ideal. So the length really need only be long enough for the variations to average out and for the total values to become large enough to swamp the end effects. ac6xg |
#3
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On Fri, 07 Oct 2005 15:09:25 -0700, Jim Kelley
wrote: But think about it. The surge impedance (Zo) is basically just the ratio of the capacitance per unit length to the inductance per unit length. Those quantities might vary a little bit from one place to another, but probably not by much. And there are undoubtedly end effects which locally pull the capacitance and inductance values away from the ideal. So the length really need only be long enough for the variations to average out and for the total values to become large enough to swamp the end effects. I don't doubt there is a discontinuity that disturbs the fields and V/I ratio. What I am asking about is the basis for the 2% of wavelength factor. If I use RG58C/U on 160m, I read that Cecil is suggesting that the V/I ratio is significiantly different to Zo for 2% * 160m or 3.2m (125")from the end of the cable, which seems large when the physical distance between the inner and outer conductor is 0.001m (0.04"). I am looking for quantitative support for Cecil's 2%. Owen -- |
#4
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Definition of what you are all waffling about :
"The input impedance Zo applies only for the duration of time taken for an echo to be received back from the point where the line impedance Zo first changes to another value.". Distance can be measured either in metres or, if you like, fractions of a wavelength. Wavelength involves frequency which is rather meaningless because time is already a variable but on a different arbitrary scale. Only Cecil could dream up a use for such an effect. ---- Reg, G4FGQ |
#5
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Reg Edwards wrote:
Only Cecil could dream up a use for such an effect. Sorry Reg, I only dream of six foot tall blonds with big boobs. The 2% WL value came from sci.physics.electromag. -- 73, Cecil http://www.qsl.net/w5dxp |
#6
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Only Cecil could dream up a use for such an effect.
Sorry Reg, I only dream of six foot tall blonds with big boobs. The 2% WL value came from sci.physics.electromag. ======================================== Yes Cec, you've told us before. I read the thread. That newsgroup has more highly-convincing old-wives than this one has. They are just a little harder to detect. 2% of wavelength is meaningless unless you also state by how much input impedance has diverged from Zo after a time T has elapsed. Wavelength also implies a frequency but what THAT has to do with it is anybody's guess. It merely adds to the confusion. ---- Reg, G4FGQ |
#7
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![]() "Cecil Moore" wrote in message . com... Reg Edwards wrote: Only Cecil could dream up a use for such an effect. Sorry Reg, I only dream of six foot tall blonds with big boobs. The 2% WL value came from sci.physics.electromag. -- 73, Cecil http://www.qsl.net/w5dxp then please take it back there. it makes no sense as it would force the effect to get longer and longer at lower frequencies. the more logical effect is fringing effects from edges of the shield if it isn't properly connected to a proper termination... this is something that i can measure with my tdr, and it is definately a very short range effect. just think, if i pulse a line with a 1khz square wave and the effect got longer with lower frequency what would the return pulse look like? |
#8
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Dave wrote:
The 2% WL value came from sci.physics.electromag. then please take it back there. it makes no sense as it would force the effect to get longer and longer at lower frequencies. So how long does the coax have to be to force V/I to Z0 when the applied signal is DC? -- 73, Cecil http://www.qsl.net/w5dxp |
#9
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Owen Duffy wrote:
Cecil, do you have some quantitative explanation / support for this? Nope, but there were no disagreeing postings. I am not asking whether or not field conditions (and V/I on the conductors) immediate to the discontinuity are not Zo of either of the lines, just where has the 2% of a wavelength come from? As I remember it came from the spacing between conductors Vs wavelength. The spacing between conductors is about 0.1 inches for RG-58. How many times that value would you think it would take for a transmission line to force its Z0 upon the signals? At 10 MHz, 2% of a wavelength (24 inches) is about 250 times the spacing between conductors. -- 73, Cecil http://www.qsl.net/w5dxp |
#10
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On Sat, 08 Oct 2005 00:25:46 GMT, Cecil Moore wrote:
Owen Duffy wrote: Cecil, do you have some quantitative explanation / support for this? Nope, but there were no disagreeing postings. I am not asking whether or not field conditions (and V/I on the conductors) immediate to the discontinuity are not Zo of either of the lines, just where has the 2% of a wavelength come from? As I remember it came from the spacing between conductors Vs wavelength. The spacing between conductors is about 0.1 inches for RG-58. How many times that value would you think it would take for a transmission line to force its Z0 upon the signals? At 10 MHz, 2% of a wavelength (24 inches) is about 250 times the spacing between conductors. It seems different people have this conceptual model of "a transmission line forcing its Z0 upon the signals" in a gradual way, though differing propositions for the length of line that does not behave as predicted by Zo. An extension of that thinking is in the proposition that I have seen that a Bird 43 cannot give valid readings unless there is at least a quarter wave of 50 ohm line on each side of itself. In this case, the magnitude of significantly affected line seems to be 25%, someone else's is 2%, can they both be correct? It seems to me that apart from the region of the significant distortion of the fields local to some kind of discontinuity, that the fields further along the line at a distance from the discontinuity large compared to the dimension of the discontinuity (which will often be the conductor spacing) should be as constrained by the physical parameters of the line (V/I=Zo for each travelling wave). In the case of the Bird 43, I suggest that if had, say, at 1MHz, 75 ohm line and a 75 ohm load on the load side, that the V/I raio for the travelling waves in the region of the sampling element would be so close to 50 ohms as to not materially affect the accuracy of measurements on the 50 ohms coupler section, irrespective of the fact that the sampling element has only 0.02% of a wavelength of 50 ohm line on its load side. (For avoidance of doubt, nothing in the foregoing is to imply the Bird 43 would be directly measuring or indicating the conditions on the 75 ohm line.) Owen -- |
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