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Old March 15th 04, 06:45 PM
Dr. Slick
 
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Toni wrote in message . ..
Hi,

I have always been taught that electrical and magnetic RF fields
went always together. You couldn't produce one without the other
and vice-versa.


A changing magnetic field creates a changing electrical field
which are orthogonal (perpedicular) top each other:

http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu...avecon.html#c1



Then I read about mag-loops having better RX noise immunity than
normal antennas because they react to magnetic fields, whilst
man-made noise occurs mostly on electrical fields.

??????



Sounds like a load of bullsh*t to me. Assuming the man-made
noise is still a propagating EM wave, how can they not have an
electric field?





If both fields go together, how can noise be greater in the
electrical field than in the magnetic one? Does that mean that
you can effectively produce one without the other?

Taking it further, if you can _receive_ one while rejecting the
other, then, by the reciprocity law, you should be able to
produce one without the other.

What is (where am I) wrong?

EA3FYA - Toni




I think you are correct to question this claim.


Slick