Bunia3 wrote:

give specific references that can be verified independently in the "Talmud"
regarding your statements....

OK- here's just a few:

According to the Talmud, non-Jews are sub-human cattle:

*The Talmud teaches that "Only ye are designated as 'men' "
(Baba Mezia 108b). The "ye" is Talmudists. The non-Talmudists
(i.e., Gentiles, "Goys" ) are not men-
they are on the level of mere beasts, or cattle.

Since "goys" are beasts, not men, they have no rights:
* "The life of a Goy and all his physical powers belong to a Jew..."
a Jew may take anything that belongs to (a goy) for any reason
whatsoever, even by fraud; nor can such be called robbery since it is
merely taking what belongs to him.
(A. Rohl. Die Polem. p.20)

* "All things pertaining to the Goim are like a desert;
the first person to come along and take them
can claim them for his own."
Babha Bathra (54 b)

This one sounds a lot like something ol'Mohammed would say:
* The intent to kill a non-Jew is so laudable that even if a Jew is
accidentally killed in an attempt to kill a non-Jew, the murderous Jew
suffers no liability.
But if a Jew intends to kill another Jew and does so, he is liable.
(Babylonian Talmud, Soncino Edition, London, 1935. Sanhedrin 78b 79a;
pg. 529-30.)

* If a Jew murders a Gentile, the Jew suffers no death penalty.
(Sanhedrin 57a., pg. 388)

* if a Gentile strikes a Jew in the jaw, the Gentile, having stricken
the "Divine Presence" (that is, a Jew) suffers the death penalty.
(Sanhedrin 58b, pg.388).

There is a great deal of linkage between Jesus and Judaism,
all of it negative.
The Talmud teaches that Jesus "committed bestiality",
"corrupted the people", "is turned into hell" (Sanhedrin 105a).
Jesus gets to experience four methods of execution:
he is stoned, then "hanged" or crucified
(Sanhedrin 43a-43b, 67a) as a blasphemer of Pharisee Judaism; he is
burned (Sanhedrin 52a): "the death penalty of burning was executed by
pouring molten lead through the condemned man's mouth into his body,
burning his internal organs"; he is strangled (Sanhedrin 52a and
Sanhedrin 106b); in hell, his punishment is "boiling in hot semen"
(Gittin 57a). (cite cribbed).
Care to explain which of those is "the Word of God?"

How about "God" endorsing sex with a 3-year old girl?

*A girl of the age of three years and one day may be
betrothed by intercourse.... if she is married to a priest"
- Babylonian Talmud Tractate Niddah 44b
Soncino 1961 Edition, page 308

*Come and hear! A maiden aged three years and a day may be acquired in
marriage by coition, and if her deceased husband's brother cohabits with
her, she becomes his."
— Babylonian Talmud, Tractate Sanhedrin 55b
Soncino 1961 Edition, page 376
------------------

I don't see any need for "interpretation;" the statments are clear.
Nor is there any question of "context;"
"you can have sex with a 3-year-old" pretty much speaks for itself.
I could go on and on here, but if you really care to know,
you'll investigate for yourself. If you don't, then I'm
wasting my time. In any case, I'm not your librarian-
do your own work.

Look- I'm not posting this because I condone hatred of Jews-
"for all have sinned and come short.." etc.
I'm posting it to make the point that *all* so-called "holy books"
are packed full of stupid crap like this-
you should read some of the stuff in the Asian writings.
People need to think about
what they call "the Word of God"
actually has lurking in it's pages,
before they go using it as some sort of authority.

Dave S.