In article , John Fields wrote:
On Tue, 1 Mar 2005 08:12:48 -0800, "RST Engineering \(jw\)"
wrote:

Sorry, dude, 50 years of designing with crystals, right from when I ground
my first surplus WWII rock on a piece of glass with toothpaste as the
abrasive says that what the original poster asked is correct.

Will the harmonic be precise? No. Will it be "close", which is what the
original poster asked? You bet. Depending on the oscillator circuit, can
it be "pulled" on frequency? Perhaps.

But to say that the crystal doesn't resonate anywhere near the harmonic is,
as I said, bullpuckey.

---
Sorry, dude, no matter how much time you've got in, if you go back
and read my post, you'll find that I wrote:

"You can use a fundamental mode crystal as an overtone oscillator, but
even if you can get it to oscillate, it won't be generating an
overtone at 100MHz, since overtone modes of oscillation aren't
harmonically related to the fundamental."


and that you replied with:

"That is total and absolute bullpuckey."

Notice that I didn't say "near", I said "at".

If you can find fault with anything I wrote in that post, I'd
appreciate specific criticism instead of that broad brush you painted
with.

Now suppose someone makes a crystal oscillate in some overtone mode that
the crystal manufacturer recommends against and is predicted to be
"inharmonic" but turns out to be only a few hundred or even sometimes a
few 10's of KHz from a multiple of a frequency that results from being
used as directed?

As I said in different words in a different post - correctly predicting
that $#!+ (AKA "slop") will spatter does not necessarily that much will
spatter nor that any will spatter far, and maybe in many cases it is
doubtful that both much will spatter and that much will spatter far.

- Don Klipstein )