Well, undoubtedly...

the 1.684 is the "pure resistance value", and this would best be at 50
ohms...

if "- J 4592" is a real minus 4592 ohms cap reactance--it would be good
to insert a +Jx of 4592 ohms (an equal and opposite inductive
reactance)... so that Jx ends up zero...

.... at that time you will find the finals in the amp start lasting
indefinitely--and you will not be bothered replacing them every few
minutes or so...

Warmest regards,
John

"redhat" wrote in message
oups.com...
yes, i want to match it to a 50ohm amplifier,why do you think it
should
be 37ohm, i have simulated it using EZNEC and the source impedance is
1.684 - J 4592, is there something wrong in that? it is 1/8 wavelength
monopole.
Regards