"Ron Baker, Pluralitas!" wrote in message
...
For the simple reason that there isn't actually a "tone" involved -
in other words, there is no actual signal at the difference frequency.
There can't be, since there is no "mixing" (multiplication) of the
two original tones.

There is no multiplication of 1000 Hz and 1005 Hz
either, is there? Why don't you hear 1000 Hz and
1005 Hz rather than a single tone varying in amplitude?

Because you can't distinguish two tones as separate tones
if they are close enough together in frequency, due to the
way in which the frequency-discrimination process in human
hearing operates.


Could it be that the human auditory system is not
linear?

There are a number of ways in which the human auditory
system is not linear; it's simply that these are not the dominant
cause of the perception of audible "beats."

Bob M.