On Wed, 15 Oct 2003 02:43:27 +0000 (UTC), Reg Edwards, said...
"budgie" wrote in message
...
On Wed, 15 Oct 2003 02:03:05 +0000 (UTC), "Reg Edwards"
wrote:
Multiply top and bottom of 1/jwC by j (This does not change its value)
and
you get 1/jwC = minus j/wC.
Back to school with your algebra.
His algebra looks perfectly fine to me. But as others have pointed
out, he's left the 2pi out.
------------------------------------------
Yes. I apologise for my remark about school. I gained the incorrect
impression from the previous replies.
The w in wC stands for omega = 2*Pi*F, the angular frequency.
now that were all done playing with j...
don't forget
Z = sqrt{R^2 + [(wL) - (1/wC)]^2]}
and
Z(s) = R + Ls + 1/Cs
which is just plain easier to deal with 'til you need to journey back
into time domain land. no need to leave it f(t) for this deal, though.
all that j stuff... that was scary ****. so easy to make a mistake.
swapping w and f is another good one. only works for f/f stuff.
mike
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