Szczepan Bialek wrote:

napisa? w wiadomo?ci
...
Szczepan Bialek wrote:

"Ian Jackson" napisal w
wiadomosci
...

In the past, many amateurs did connect coax directly to a dipole.

And what they do if they have the monopole?

Connect it with coaxial transmission line, idiot.

If the monopole has only one radial it is exactly as the your dipole.
Right?

Wrong.

You keep using the phrase "your dipole" which is utter nonsense.

A dipole is a dipole is a dipole.

An antenna with two elements at right angles to each other is called a
V dipole and presents a balance load at it's terminals.

And what if somebody have the monopole with the radials?

Since a monopole with radials is an unbalanced load, there is no current
flow on the outside of the coax, idiot.

But your "dipole" is exactly like the monopole with the one radial.

No, it is not; see above idiot.

A monopole with radials presents an unbalanced load at it's terminals
while two elements at right angles to eash other present a balanced load
at it's terminals.

Also, the patterns of the two antennas are totally different.

The twin feeder ensure the electrical symmetry.

Yes, it does, as does a balancing device and coax transmission line,
idiot.

Are you sure?

Positively as was taught in the electromagnetics classes taken to get a
degree in electrical and electronic engineering and verified by about 50
years of building antennas.

What degrees do you have and how many antennas have you built?

I know that in the coax screen something is induced. But I am sure that
such "dipole" is not electrically symmetrical.

He is then assuming that if the coax screen is at zero RF potential
where
it is connected to the other leg of the dipole, then the other leg of
the
dipole is also at zero RF potential (and doesn't radiate). This is
wrong.

I am sure that the other leg radiate almost nothing.

In Hertz time all scientists investigate which part of the Hertz
apparature
radiate.

In Hertz's time the instruments to measure the voltages, currents, and
fields didn't exist.

In Faraday's time the all was measured. The only difference was in the
electrons name. Faraday's name for the electric particle was "nuclei".

Total and utter babbling nonsense as the equipment to make such measurements
was invented long after Faraday died.

You are an ignorant, babbling, ineducable idiot.