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#1
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Gene Fuller wrote:
I have stared at the W8JI web page http://www.w8ji.com/inductor_current_time_delay.htm for a long time, and I just cannot find anyplace where he mentions 4.5 degrees. Is that your calculation rather than Tom's? Good Grief, Gene. Do you not know how to change ns of delay to degrees of delay at 4 MHz? Assuming that some posters may not know how, here's how. Degrees of delay = 360(ns of Delay/WL/c) The wavelength at 4 MHz is 246 feet. W8JI tells us that the speed of light is 0.9821 ft/ns. That makes the delay for a 3 ns delay equal to 4.47 degrees. -- 73, Cecil http://www.w5dxp.com |
#2
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Cecil Moore wrote:
Gene Fuller wrote: I have stared at the W8JI web page http://www.w8ji.com/inductor_current_time_delay.htm for a long time, and I just cannot find anyplace where he mentions 4.5 degrees. Is that your calculation rather than Tom's? Good Grief, Gene. Do you not know how to change ns of delay to degrees of delay at 4 MHz? Assuming that some posters may not know how, here's how. Degrees of delay = 360(ns of Delay/WL/c) The wavelength at 4 MHz is 246 feet. W8JI tells us that the speed of light is 0.9821 ft/ns. That makes the delay for a 3 ns delay equal to 4.47 degrees. Cecil, A proper "quote" does not include any extra analysis. If you want to add your own explanation or disagreement, by all means do so. Incorrect quoting simply destroys credibility for your argument. W8JI did not say "4.5 degrees", you did. (And yes, I do understand the equations.) 73, Gene W4SZ |
#3
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Gene Fuller wrote:
Cecil Moore wrote: Gene Fuller wrote: I have stared at the W8JI web page http://www.w8ji.com/inductor_current_time_delay.htm for a long time, and I just cannot find anyplace where he mentions 4.5 degrees. Is that your calculation rather than Tom's? Good Grief, Gene. Do you not know how to change ns of delay to degrees of delay at 4 MHz? Assuming that some posters may not know how, here's how. Degrees of delay = 360(ns of Delay/WL/c) The wavelength at 4 MHz is 246 feet. W8JI tells us that the speed of light is 0.9821 ft/ns. That makes the delay for a 3 ns delay equal to 4.47 degrees. Cecil, A proper "quote" does not include any extra analysis. If you want to add your own explanation or disagreement, by all means do so. Incorrect quoting simply destroys credibility for your argument. W8JI did not say "4.5 degrees", you did. (And yes, I do understand the equations.) 73, Gene W4SZ I know one should not respond to his own post, but I want to follow up with one more thing. As far as I can tell, W8JI did not do any math or other type of analysis to come up with the 3 ns delay. There was some surrounding discussion, but the delay itself was simply read from an instrument. So let me repeat my earlier questions. What went wrong? Why is that number incorrect? 73, Gene W4SZ |
#4
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Gene, W4SZ wrote:
"What went wrong?" Sorry, I can`t say because I haven`t followed this thread closely. Surely the signal follows the path of the turns on a coil. Movement of electrons is slothful but they are urged by the fields sweeping across them. Terman has but one mistake in his 1955 opus and it is only a typographical error which is obvious, kilocycles instead of megacycles or something of the sort and doesn`t affect understanding the subject. Terman says on the "Mechanism of Operation of the Traveling-Wave Tube" at the bottom of page 678: "The applied signal propagates around the helix and produces an electric field at the center of the helix that is directed along the helix axis. That`s been read and re-read over 50 years and even repeated in the "Lenkurt Demodulator". There is no chance it is wrong. Best regards, Richard Harrison, KB5WZI |
#5
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Richard Harrison wrote:
... Terman says on the "Mechanism of Operation of the Traveling-Wave Tube" at the bottom of page 678: "The applied signal propagates around the helix and produces an electric field at the center of the helix that is directed along the helix axis. ... Best regards, Richard Harrison, KB5WZI And, obeys basic rules, such as: http://www.allaboutcircuits.com/vol_2/chpt_1/6.html So, a summary of your point? Afraid I am a bit dense here today ... Regards, JS |
#6
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John Smith wrote:
"So, a summary of your point?" The velocity of the wave traveling on the turns of a coil is slightly less than 300 million meters per second. Divide the number of meters of wire in your coil by 300,000,000 and you get the number of seconds required for the signal to get from one end to the other on the coil, almost. Actual delay is slightly more because material surroundings slow the wave a little more than a vacuum does. There is no magic instantaneous transfer of energy from one turn to another within a coil. If there were, Terman would have told us so. Best regards, Richard Harrison, KB5WZI |
#7
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Richard Harrison wrote:
... There is no magic instantaneous transfer of energy from one turn to another within a coil. If there were, Terman would have told us so. Best regards, Richard Harrison, KB5WZI Richard: Thanks, got you now, and of course, no disagreement here. However, if anyone has a view to the contrary, I would be interested in the specifics ... However, there is something akin "special case" which does come to my mind: Say a two turn coils' configuration was changed to two single turns ... somehow, even if insignificant, this same interaction of what is occurring in one turns must be "felt" by the two turn coil. (crud, I hope you can "decode" that ...) What say you? Regards, JS |
#8
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Richard Harrison wrote:
There is no magic instantaneous transfer of energy from one turn to another within a coil. It's not magic and it cannot occur at faster than light speed. Magnetic coupling between air-core coils does exist. It is just not of the magical magnitude asserted by W8JI. You wouldn't use the same argument on an iron-core coil, would you, where virtually all of the coil#1 flux does indeed link with coil#N? -- 73, Cecil http://www.w5dxp.com |
#9
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#10
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Richard Harrison wrote:
Surely the signal follows the path of the turns on a coil. Not entirely as adjacent turns do have an effect on each other so there is a grain of truth in what W8JI is saying. W8JI's error was in taking that grain of truth and rationalizing that small grain into an explanation that is off by at least a magnitude. It looks like a reasonable rule of thumb is that the velocity factor of a coil is approximately half what it would be if the signal followed the wire entirely. In other words, if one calculates the delay in the length of wire used to wind the coil, the actual delay through the coil is likely to be half of that value. -- 73, Cecil http://www.w5dxp.com |
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