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On Dec 31, 12:36*am, Cecil Moore wrote:
Keith Dysart wrote: Cecil Moore wrote: They engaged in typical author-speak. I think not. You are welcome to your opinion. Authors always couch their assertions in probabilities by never uttering an absolute lest they be proved wrong by one esoteric example. Of course. That is writing with precision, as I said. Well, there is no energy flowing through the '+' points. I proved that energy is flowing through the '+' points before the line is cut. Unfortunately, this has not being proved as yet, but merely assumed. Superposition proves that there is energy flowing through those points. I thought that you had previously agreed that it was not appropriate to superpose power. This can be revisited if you have changed your mind. And I have no issue if you wish to claim that there are reflections at these points, though I might use 'bouncing' to differentiate from reflections occuring at points with non-zero reflection coefficients. So bouncing is what happens at points with zero reflection coefficients. You seem to have invented a new religion. No. I was merely offering an alternate term tht you might use when claiming that they reflect, since reflect causes you such grief. No energy is flowing (q.v. IEEE definition of instantaneous power), and yet you want energy to be flowing. Lots of energy is flowing in both directions. Only the *NET* energy flow is zero. Back to superposing power. Although many have tried to prove that the output (source) impedance is the impedance encountered by the reflected waves, all of those numerous experiments have failed. You, Cecil, are the only one who believes this. Any good book on transmission lines will tell you otherwise. I am not surprised that you are ignorant of the raging arguments that have been going on primarily between Bruene and Maxwell and their respective supporters. I believe it continued to rage in the 2007 letters to the QEX editors. That argument was more about whether the output impedance of an amateur transmitter was well defined. In my encounters with the arguments I don't recall any claim that if it was well defined and equal to the line impedance, then there would be a reflection. If this claim was made, then someone needed to revisit the books. Web references and Spice models which agree that "the output (source) impedance is the impedance encountered by the reflected waves" have been previously provided, but you refused to explore them. No, I asked you to measure the reflection coefficients and report the results. You refused to do so. Exactly. You refused to check your textbooks. You refused to review the web references. You refused to examine the spice models. Instead you ask me to measure something and expect me to believe that some measurement I make will convince you. Just another way to delay. If the issue had ever been resolved, it would be common knowledge and we wouldn't be arguing about it. There is only one place that this is being argued. If you would review your textbooks, if you would look at the web references, or if you would examine the spice models, you would learn that the argument was settled long ago. (Actually, there probably never was an argument, except on r.r.a.a.) ...Keith |
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