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Roger wrote:
Roy Lewallen wrote: Roger wrote: The power output of the Thévenin equivalent circuit follows the load. Sorry, I don't understand this. Can you express it as an equation? There seems to be some confusion as to the terms "Thévenin equivalent circuit", "ideal voltage source", and how impedance follows these sources. Two sources we all have access to are these links: Voltage source: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Voltage_source Thévenin equivalent circuit: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Th%C3%A9venin%27s_theorem As far as I can see, I've used the terms entirely consistently with the definitions and descriptions in the linked articles. If you can find any instance in which I haven't, please point it out so I can correct it. Three important observations about the ideal voltage source: 1. The voltage is maintained, no matter what current flows through the source. Presumably, this would also mean that the voltage would be maintained if a negative current flowed through the source. Actually, the wikipedia article correctly states this explicitly. Thus, if we set the voltage to 1 volt, the voltage would remain 1v even if we supplied an infinite amount of power to the source. You have to be very careful with using infinite amounts of anything because the underlying mathematics runs into problems. For example, look up "impulses" in any circuits text, and you'll find situations where a pulse has zero width and infinite height yet finite area. So let's just say the voltage stays at 1 volt if you apply any finite amount of current. 2. The idea voltage source can ADSORB an infinite amount of power while maintaining voltage. Yes, that's correct. In this capacity, it is like a variable resistor, capable of changing resistance to maintain a design voltage, no matter what current is supplied to it. No, that's not correct, unless you're willing to work with negative resistances. V/I is a negative number when you supply current to a voltage source. So it doesn't in any way act like a resistance, changing or not. 3. The idea voltage source has an infinite impedance at the design voltage, not a zero impedance as many have suggested. No, that's not correct. Zero internal resistance is assumed to reasonably allow the ideal voltage source to supply or adsorb current without changing voltage internally. Yes, that's correct. It is not zero impedance with the result that voltage drops to zero if external power FLOWS INTO the ideal source. Sorry, I don't understand that statement. The voltage never changes, regardless of the current flowing in or out. Review the wikipedia article or any circuits text. Current flows into the ideal voltage source when the applied voltage exceeds the design voltage. You can't "apply" a voltage to an ideal voltage source, except through an impedance. If you did, for example by connecting it to another voltage source of different value, the conditions defined for the voltage sources are contradictory and can't exist at the same time. If you do apply a voltage through an impedance, the current is simply the voltage across the impedance divided by the impedance. At the point the current reverses, we have voltage/zero current, which is infinite impedance. It sounds like you're trying to calculate some sort of "instantaneous impedance". This isn't a generally accepted concept, and you'll have to develop a fairly complete set of rules and mathematics to cover it. Two things to notice about the Thévenin equivalent circuit: 1. It contains an ideal voltage source "IN SERIES" with a resistor. This has important implications when externally supplied voltage exceeds the design voltage. Not really. The current simply equals the voltage across the resistor divided by the resistance, in accordance with Ohm's law. Any returning power would not only reverse the current flow in the ideal voltage source, it would develop voltage across the internal series resistor. The output Thevenin voltage would be the design voltage plus the voltage developed in the resistor. Your problem here, and I suspect elsewhere, is that you've embraced the idea that there are waves of flowing and reflecting power. Your otherwise reasoned questions and arguments are a good illustration into the traps this concept leads a person into. You're seeing that in order to support this mistaken concept, you have to reject some very fundamental principles of electrical circuit operation. So you end up with only two choices: 1. Re-write a great deal of fundamental circuit theory and reject the foundation which has consistently given demonstrably correct results for over a century, or 2. Realize that the flowing-power concept is flawed and abandon it. The choice is yours. 2. The impedance of the Thevenin equivalent source would be infinite at the design voltage because a voltage will existed from the ideal source but current does not flow. This is true no matter what the design impedance is for the Thevenin source. You're trying to define the impedance of a source as the ratio of its voltage to the current being drawn from it. That's not the impedance of the source, it's the impedance of the load. The two are not the same. The impedance of the source is its open circuit voltage divided by its short circuit current. Another way to determine the impedance of the source is to apply various loads and see how much the voltage drops. Any test you run will confirm that the ideal voltage source has a zero resistance, as my postings, the wikipedia article, or any circuits text tell you. Please notice in the link about the Thevenin circuit, a reference to a "Thévenin-equivalent resistance". This is the resistance component of the Thevenin equivalent circuit. It's equal to the resistance of the circuitry for which the Thevenin equivalent is being substituted. This resistance uses the ideal voltage source set to zero. Can you explain this? There is no requirement that the source be set to zero in determining or using the Thevenin equivalent resistance. This appears to be the circuit that entered the discussion at some point, justifying a negative 1 reflection factor. My analysis did not contain a Thevenin equivalent to any circuit. It contained only an ideal voltage source. Therefore, when the load delivers power, the Thévenin equivalent circuit adsorbs power. Right? Certainly, any energy leaving the transmission line must enter the circuitry to which it's connected. Is that what you mean? Roy Lewallen, W7EL If the rules found in the links are acceptable, I could agree that energy be allowed to enter the connected circuitry. I think we will find that the returning power from a reflected wave is either completely reflected with no change in energy, or adds to the voltage, thus increasing the current flow and power contained in the system. You're building a logical argument from a flawed premise. I'm afraid you've only just begun to see the problems you'll be having as you pursue this path. Roy Lewallen, W7EL |
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