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#1
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On Sunday, March 8, 2015 at 3:40:21 AM UTC-5, Spike wrote:
On 08/03/15 00:17, wrote: True ground wave, which to me, is the same as the surface wave, actually can follow the curvature of the earth, which a space wave cannot do. But true ground or surface waves are generally only taken advantage of on the lower frequencies such as MW, or LW. That's true, which is a shame as useful ground-wave/surface wave can be had on 28 MHz; a maximum range figure for a path over ground of average conductivity might be 25 miles, and considerably more if the path is over water (especially sea-water). That's space wave on 10m. Even seeing a surface wave on 40m is a bit of a stretch from the norm. As I mentioned in my 2nd post, the reason I saw farther than expected from space wave operation on 40m, could well have been due to refraction of the space wave, and due to the fact that the radio horizon is farther than the visual horizon. I used to work local 10m all the time back in the 80's, early 90's.. 25 miles is fairly easy with any decent antenna, at a decent height above ground. I used to work a good bit farther than that fairly often, when using an antenna at 35-45 feet up. The reason I think so, is because the distances I could work with it were a good bit farther than what I would expect with the space wave alone. Maximum surface wave over ground with average conductivity might be 40 to 45 miles on 40m; if you were getting ranges over this, then your ground conductivity might have been enhanced, or due to the height of your ground-plane, you could have experienced refraction of the space wave. If your location was on a hill-top or other high ground, this could have helped the space wave refraction as well. The ground is good here, and the ground plane was full size at 36 ft at the base of the antenna. But it may well have been an enhanced space wave. I was often working well over 100 miles away in such a case. I believe that the availability 24/7/365 of the space-wave and surface-wave is one of Amateur Radio's undervalued assets. On 160m the surface wave might reach over 100 miles, including behind hills and into valleys, which here in the UK would enable a station to reach a significant proportion of the UK Amateur population. Unfortunately, people dismiss verticals in favour of horizontals of one form or another, the usefulness of which drops to zero when the sky wave disappears (apart from any vertically-polarized radiation from a mismatched feeder or unbalanced elements). Well, not everyone does. I know many on 160m who favor verticals. Not only for ground wave, but better DX. The ground wave is pretty good on 160m if using a vertical. Nearly as good as on the MW AM broadcast band, being the two bands are right next door to each other, so to speak. |
#3
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On 3/8/2015 7:21 PM, Brian Reay wrote:
There is a world atlas of conductivity which is on the web, I can't recall the URL, but it is worth looking out. The various seas and oceans do vary, I recall the Baltic being less conductive for example. Likewise, some of the patterns in the various countries are rather intriguing. Some areas you would expect to be conductive are not. I assume due to local rock formations etc. I've been lurking in this thread and it reminded me of a time many years ago when I was working on a receiver setup. A colleague gave me a book with an equation for signal strength of a signal in the cell phone frequency range in various terrestrial environments. I had a little trouble accepting an arbitrary equation that wasn't at least close to the typical 1/r^2 formula in free space. I seem to recall there was no 1/r^2 term at all rather it was more like a linear or maybe had a rlog(r) term. In any event, no one could explain where the equation came from. I suppose it was an empirical equation rather than something derived from theory. Ignoring waves bounced off the upper atmosphere, I assume the earth acts to help focus the signal and strengthen it close to the ground? -- Rick |
#4
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On 3/9/2015 3:29 AM, Jeff wrote:
I've been lurking in this thread and it reminded me of a time many years ago when I was working on a receiver setup. A colleague gave me a book with an equation for signal strength of a signal in the cell phone frequency range in various terrestrial environments. I had a little trouble accepting an arbitrary equation that wasn't at least close to the typical 1/r^2 formula in free space. I seem to recall there was no 1/r^2 term at all rather it was more like a linear or maybe had a rlog(r) term. In any event, no one could explain where the equation came from. I suppose it was an empirical equation rather than something derived from theory. Ignoring waves bounced off the upper atmosphere, I assume the earth acts to help focus the signal and strengthen it close to the ground? You are correct, most of those formulas are empirical, base on actual observations. Look up papers by Egli and by Hatta, they will five you some idea on how theses formulas were derived. Jeff As are basically all formulas. Even Ohm's Law was derived from actual observations. Although Einstein's equations such as E=mc^2 wasn't derived from actual observation, it did come by projection of existing knowledge by an exceptional mind. -- ================== Remove the "x" from my email address Jerry, AI0K ================== |
#5
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On 3/9/2015 10:11 AM, Jeff wrote:
As are basically all formulas. Even Ohm's Law was derived from actual observations. That is certainly not correct in a lot of cases. The inverse square law for free space path loss, for example, is derived intuitively and simply from the transmitted power being equally distributed in all directions, not from observations. S= P*(1/(4piD^2)) Jeff Jeff, Actually, not. It was observed first back in the 1700's-1800's when the link between electricity and magnetism was being investigated. And hundreds of years before that, it was a know property of magnets. The equations didn't come until later. -- ================== Remove the "x" from my email address Jerry, AI0K ================== |
#6
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On 09/03/15 15:43, Jerry Stuckle wrote:
On 3/9/2015 10:11 AM, Jeff wrote: As are basically all formulas. Even Ohm's Law was derived from actual observations. That is certainly not correct in a lot of cases. The inverse square law for free space path loss, for example, is derived intuitively and simply from the transmitted power being equally distributed in all directions, not from observations. S= P*(1/(4piD^2)) Jeff Jeff, Actually, not. It was observed first back in the 1700's-1800's when the link between electricity and magnetism was being investigated. And hundreds of years before that, it was a know property of magnets. The equations didn't come until later. You are confusing a magnetic field with an EM field. You can have a magnetic field with no E field- eg from a bar magnet. It will have a magnet field which exhibits the inverse square law but no E field. |
#7
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On 3/9/2015 12:54 PM, Brian Reay wrote:
On 09/03/15 15:43, Jerry Stuckle wrote: On 3/9/2015 10:11 AM, Jeff wrote: As are basically all formulas. Even Ohm's Law was derived from actual observations. That is certainly not correct in a lot of cases. The inverse square law for free space path loss, for example, is derived intuitively and simply from the transmitted power being equally distributed in all directions, not from observations. S= P*(1/(4piD^2)) Jeff Jeff, Actually, not. It was observed first back in the 1700's-1800's when the link between electricity and magnetism was being investigated. And hundreds of years before that, it was a know property of magnets. The equations didn't come until later. You are confusing a magnetic field with an EM field. You can have a magnetic field with no E field- eg from a bar magnet. It will have a magnet field which exhibits the inverse square law but no E field. Brian, No, I'm not confusing the two. But my point is that one led to the other. The equations didn't appear out of mid air - measurements preceded them. The observations I was talking about in the 1700's-1800's were for EM fields. And my point was their loss with distance is the same as with M fields - which had been known for a much longer time. And E fields were also measured back in the days of Leyden jars and the like. -- ================== Remove the "x" from my email address Jerry, AI0K ================== |
#8
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On 3/9/2015 12:54 PM, Brian Reay wrote:
On 09/03/15 15:43, Jerry Stuckle wrote: On 3/9/2015 10:11 AM, Jeff wrote: As are basically all formulas. Even Ohm's Law was derived from actual observations. That is certainly not correct in a lot of cases. The inverse square law for free space path loss, for example, is derived intuitively and simply from the transmitted power being equally distributed in all directions, not from observations. S= P*(1/(4piD^2)) Jeff Jeff, Actually, not. It was observed first back in the 1700's-1800's when the link between electricity and magnetism was being investigated. And hundreds of years before that, it was a know property of magnets. The equations didn't come until later. You are confusing a magnetic field with an EM field. You can have a magnetic field with no E field- eg from a bar magnet. It will have a magnet field which exhibits the inverse square law but no E field. The problem would seem to be that there is confusion with an equation being preceded by measurements (pretty much *every* equation known) with equations that were crafted in the absence of derivation solely to fit data. Even Einstein's equations had measurements that preceded them and were essential to their formulation. Michelson and Morley made the measurements that set the stage for E=Mc^2. I would hardly call that an empirical equation. Not much point in trying to discuss this. It will be impossible to find any common ground I am sure. -- Rick |
#9
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On Sunday, March 8, 2015 at 6:21:06 PM UTC-5, Brian Reay wrote:
The ground is good here, With respect, the difference in local ground is rather over stated. Maybe so, but not really by me. :| Taking the US as an example, the conductivity ranges from 0.5mS to 30mS, which sounds a lot. However, compared to sea water, 5000mS, it is all rather poor. Sure. It's rated at 30mS here, which was why I said it was "good". And I'm about 55-60 miles from the Gulf of Mexico. I've run mobile from the beach, one time actually backing up to the water and running ground wires into the ocean. Needless to say, my 14 ft tall mobile whip was browning the food quite nicely on that occasion. ![]() it does pretty well even over poor ground, but it really got with the program down at the beach. I was parked at the mouth of the Brazos River down at Quintana Beach. I was also fishing.. I'd rig up my rod and reels, putting them on auto pilot, and then would kick back and drink brewed beverages while jibber jabbering on the radio. ![]() If I saw a rod start to twitch, I'd put down the mike and adult beverage, and reel in the fish. ![]() I noticed this some years back when reading a paper, as I recall written by the US Navy, which played down the importance of ground conductivity, other when either at sea or in close proximity to the shore. I've never really worried about it too awful much. I don't really rely on it, one way or the other. Even with decent ground quality, I still run a good radial set, or if elevated, enough radials to do the job, as if the ground were poor. Of course, I can't control the ground conductivity away from my QTH. So no use worrying about it. There is a world atlas of conductivity which is on the web, I can't recall the URL, but it is worth looking out. The various seas and oceans do vary, I recall the Baltic being less conductive for example. Likewise, some of the patterns in the various countries are rather intriguing. Some areas you would expect to be conductive are not. I assume due to local rock formations etc. The only map I've seen is one that is in the ARRL handbooks.. It's the one that shows this area as 30 mS. I think it only covered the US, or maybe North America at the max.. Don't know about the rest of the planet. |
#10
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