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#262
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#263
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John S wrote:
On 7/8/2015 4:48 PM, wrote: John S wrote: On 7/8/2015 12:47 PM, wrote: John S wrote: So, at 1Hz the law has changed, eh? What new law do I need to use? To be pendatic, there is only one set of physical laws that govern electromagnetics. However for DC all the complex parts of those laws have no effect and all the equations can be simplified to remove the complex parts. In the real, practical world people look upon this as two sets of laws, one for AC and one for DC. A good example of this is the transmission line which does not exist at DC; at DC a transmission line is nothing more than two wires with some resistance that is totally and only due to the ohmic resistance of the material that makes up the wires. So, is .01Hz AC or DC, Jim? How about 1Hz? 10Hz? Where does AC begin and DC end? It is called a limit. If there is NO time varying component, it is DC, otherwise it is AC. Are you playing devil's advocate or are you really that ignorant? Then there is no such thing as DC because even a battery looses voltage over a period of time. DC voltage sources have noise. Are just being argumentative or are you really that ignorant? What you say is true in a literal sense. However there is certainly such a thing as DC from the POV of what you want to know about a system being calculated or measured with sufficient and relevant accuracy and precision by treating it as DC. In real life this is remarkably common. -- Roger Hayter |
#264
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Jeff wrote:
On 08/07/2015 19:14, wrote: John S wrote: On 7/7/2015 1:44 PM, wrote: Ian Jackson wrote: In message , Jerry Stuckle writes Sure, there is ALWAYS VSWR. It may be 1:1, but it's always there. If there's no reflection, there can be no standing wave. So, being pedantic, there's no such thing as an SWR of 1:1! Despite the name, VSWR is defined in terms of complex impedances and wavelengths, not "waves" of any kind. Actually, VSWR is defined as the ratio of Vmax/Vmin. Actually, VSWR can be defined several ways, one of which is: (1 + |r|)/(1 - |r|) Where r is the reflection coefficient which can be defined a: (Zl - Zo)/(Zl + Zo) Where Zl is the complex load impedance and Zo is the complex source impedance. Note that a complex impedance has a frequency dependant part. Note the the definition of VSWR uses the magnitude of the reflection coefficient, |r|, which removes the phase and frequency dependant parts. Jeff The magnitude remains frequency dependent. -- Roger Hayter |
#265
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On 7/8/2015 9:07 PM, John S wrote:
On 7/8/2015 4:48 PM, wrote: John S wrote: On 7/8/2015 12:47 PM, wrote: John S wrote: So, at 1Hz the law has changed, eh? What new law do I need to use? To be pendatic, there is only one set of physical laws that govern electromagnetics. However for DC all the complex parts of those laws have no effect and all the equations can be simplified to remove the complex parts. In the real, practical world people look upon this as two sets of laws, one for AC and one for DC. A good example of this is the transmission line which does not exist at DC; at DC a transmission line is nothing more than two wires with some resistance that is totally and only due to the ohmic resistance of the material that makes up the wires. So, is .01Hz AC or DC, Jim? How about 1Hz? 10Hz? Where does AC begin and DC end? It is called a limit. If there is NO time varying component, it is DC, otherwise it is AC. Are you playing devil's advocate or are you really that ignorant? Then there is no such thing as DC because even a battery looses voltage over a period of time. DC voltage sources have noise. Are just being argumentative or are you really that ignorant? Even if you have a theoretical voltage source, there are no circuits (other than imaginary) that have been on since before the big bang and will be on for all time in the future. -- Rick |
#266
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![]() "Jeff" wrote in message ... The SWR has to be the same at any point on the coax or transmission line minus the loss in the line. A simple swr meter may show some differance because of the way that kind of meter works. By changing the length of the line , the apparent SWR may be differant at that point. There is no such thing as apparent SWR. It is what it is in a given place. By 'apparent SWR' he means as indicated SWR on the meter, and yes it can change at various point on the line due to inadequacies in the meter; the 'real' VSWR will of course remain the same at any point on a lossless line. Jeff That is what I mean Jeff. If there is any SWR, by changing the length of the line, the voltage/current changes in such a maner that at certain points you may get a 50 ohm match at that point. |
#267
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On 7/9/2015 9:14 AM, Ralph Mowery wrote:
"Jeff" wrote in message ... The SWR has to be the same at any point on the coax or transmission line minus the loss in the line. A simple swr meter may show some differance because of the way that kind of meter works. By changing the length of the line , the apparent SWR may be differant at that point. There is no such thing as apparent SWR. It is what it is in a given place. By 'apparent SWR' he means as indicated SWR on the meter, and yes it can change at various point on the line due to inadequacies in the meter; the 'real' VSWR will of course remain the same at any point on a lossless line. Jeff That is what I mean Jeff. If there is any SWR, by changing the length of the line, the voltage/current changes in such a maner that at certain points you may get a 50 ohm match at that point. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standi...dance_matching "if there is a perfect match between the load impedance Zload and the source impedance Zsource=Z*load, that perfect match will remain if the source and load are connected through a transmission line with an electrical length of one half wavelength (or a multiple of one half wavelengths) using a transmission line of any characteristic impedance Z0." This wiki article has a lot of good info in it. I have seen a lot of stuff posted here that this article directly contradicts.... I wonder who is right? -- Rick |
#268
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On 7/9/2015 12:31 AM, wrote:
rickman wrote: On 7/8/2015 8:34 PM, wrote: rickman wrote: On 7/8/2015 3:38 PM, John S wrote: On 7/8/2015 10:48 AM, rickman wrote: On 7/8/2015 10:09 AM, John S wrote: On 7/2/2015 1:38 PM, rickman wrote: On 7/2/2015 1:56 PM, Ralph Mowery wrote: "Jerry Stuckle" wrote in message ... Try this - connect the output of an HF transmitter to an SWR bridge. Now connect a piece of 75 ohm coax such as RG-59 to the output of the SWR meter, and connect that to a 75 ohm resistive load. Do you think the SWR bridge will show a 1:1 SWR? Not a chance. It will be 1.5:1. What you have described is a case of using the wrong swr bridge. You are trying to use a 50 ohm bridge on a 75 ohm system. If a 75 ohm bridge is used it will show a 1:1 SWR. The real SWR is 1:1. With a 75 ohm line and 75 ohm load there is no reflected power. My knowledge of antenna systems is limited, but I do know that this is correct, there will be no reflection from the antenna. If there is no reflections from the antenna, how can there be a loss in the source end? There is NO power returned according to your own statement. I don't see any contradiction. The power comes from the source through the source impedance. The source impedance will create a loss, no? If the transmitter output is 50 ohms there will be a loss in this matching that will result in less power being delivered to the feed line, but that will not result in reflections in the feed line. Why? What causes the loss? The transmitter output resistance? So that would mean that one can never achieve more that 50% efficiency at the transmitter's OUTPUT! And that would mean that a 1000W transmitter is dissipating 500 watts under the BEST circumstances. Good luck on getting that to work to your satisfaction. Maybe "loss" isn't the right term then. The output of a 50 ohm source driving a 75 ohm load will deliver 4% less power into the load than when driving a 50 ohm load. That comes to -0.177 dB. Is there any part of that you disagree with? All of it. Let's say you have a 1A source and it has a 50 ohm impedance in series with its output. With a 50 ohm load it will provide 50W to the load. With a 75 ohm load it will provide 75W to the load. The only difference is that the 50 ohm load will cause the source voltage (before the series impedance) to be 100V while the 75 ohm load will require 112V (before the series impedance). If the series impedance is 0 +/- j75 ohms, it will have no power loss. If the series impedance is 50 + j0 it will have a 50W loss. I was referring to a voltage source. Instead of arguing about it, one can download QUCS for free which will simulate the whole thing and one can see what really happens. Download QUCS for your operating system: http://qucs.sourceforge.net/ Generate a model consisting of a voltage source with a series resistance of a few Ohms to simulate a solid state source or a much higher resistance to simulate a vacuum tube source. Chose a convienient frequency for the source. Go to: http://home.sandiego.edu/~ekim/e194r.../matcher2.html to calculate an impedance matching network to match the resistance you've chosen to 50 Ohms. Put the matching circuit in the model. Add a transmission line to the model. Terminate the transmission line with a 50 Ohms resistor. Add a fixed frequency AC simulation at the desired frequency. Change various parameters to your heart's content to see what happens. Change the matching network such that the output of your transmitter is no longer 50 Ohms and see what happens. When the QUCS output disagrees with your beliefs, you can argue with the program. Uh, I already did a simulation using LTspice. No one even commented on the simulation as I recall. Besides, I don't really need a simulation to measure the power delivered to a load. That is a *very* simple circuit to calculate in a few seconds. But first we have to agree on what we are discussing. Does LTspice do transmission lines? Yes. I'm not going to retrace this entire conversation, but someone said a matching network which presents a complex impedance with a non-zero real part and a zero imaginary part would reflect 100% of the wave which had been reflected from the antenna back to the transmitter output. I was trying to nail down this example so I could do some calculations on it. If you want to do that I am happy to work on the problem. If not, that's fine too. Nope, I know what happens. BTW, my response was not directed at any particular person other than those that do not understand the conditions for maximum power transfer given a fixed source. |
#269
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![]() wrote in message ... John S wrote: On 7/8/2015 7:27 PM, Wayne wrote: "John S" wrote in message ... On 7/7/2015 1:44 PM, wrote: Ian Jackson wrote: In message , Jerry Stuckle writes Sure, there is ALWAYS VSWR. It may be 1:1, but it's always there. If there's no reflection, there can be no standing wave. So, being pedantic, there's no such thing as an SWR of 1:1! Despite the name, VSWR is defined in terms of complex impedances and wavelengths, not "waves" of any kind. Actually, VSWR is defined as the ratio of Vmax/Vmin. That's also my understanding of the definition. In fact since SWR is defined as the maximum to minimum voltage ratio, the "V" in VSWR is redundant. Sort of. There is also ISWR but it is not used frequently. # Not sort of, but is. # There is also PSWR. And both go back to the Vmax/Vmin definition. The PSWR is a tricky one because you can end up with a power ratio instead of a voltage ratio. |
#270
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On 7/8/2015 8:25 PM, rickman wrote:
On 7/8/2015 8:34 PM, wrote: rickman wrote: On 7/8/2015 3:38 PM, John S wrote: On 7/8/2015 10:48 AM, rickman wrote: On 7/8/2015 10:09 AM, John S wrote: On 7/2/2015 1:38 PM, rickman wrote: On 7/2/2015 1:56 PM, Ralph Mowery wrote: "Jerry Stuckle" wrote in message ... Try this - connect the output of an HF transmitter to an SWR bridge. Now connect a piece of 75 ohm coax such as RG-59 to the output of the SWR meter, and connect that to a 75 ohm resistive load. Do you think the SWR bridge will show a 1:1 SWR? Not a chance. It will be 1.5:1. What you have described is a case of using the wrong swr bridge. You are trying to use a 50 ohm bridge on a 75 ohm system. If a 75 ohm bridge is used it will show a 1:1 SWR. The real SWR is 1:1. With a 75 ohm line and 75 ohm load there is no reflected power. My knowledge of antenna systems is limited, but I do know that this is correct, there will be no reflection from the antenna. If there is no reflections from the antenna, how can there be a loss in the source end? There is NO power returned according to your own statement. I don't see any contradiction. The power comes from the source through the source impedance. The source impedance will create a loss, no? If the transmitter output is 50 ohms there will be a loss in this matching that will result in less power being delivered to the feed line, but that will not result in reflections in the feed line. Why? What causes the loss? The transmitter output resistance? So that would mean that one can never achieve more that 50% efficiency at the transmitter's OUTPUT! And that would mean that a 1000W transmitter is dissipating 500 watts under the BEST circumstances. Good luck on getting that to work to your satisfaction. Maybe "loss" isn't the right term then. The output of a 50 ohm source driving a 75 ohm load will deliver 4% less power into the load than when driving a 50 ohm load. That comes to -0.177 dB. Is there any part of that you disagree with? All of it. Let's say you have a 1A source and it has a 50 ohm impedance in series with its output. With a 50 ohm load it will provide 50W to the load. With a 75 ohm load it will provide 75W to the load. The only difference is that the 50 ohm load will cause the source voltage (before the series impedance) to be 100V while the 75 ohm load will require 112V (before the series impedance). If the series impedance is 0 +/- j75 ohms, it will have no power loss. If the series impedance is 50 + j0 it will have a 50W loss. I was referring to a voltage source. Instead of arguing about it, one can download QUCS for free which will simulate the whole thing and one can see what really happens. Download QUCS for your operating system: http://qucs.sourceforge.net/ Generate a model consisting of a voltage source with a series resistance of a few Ohms to simulate a solid state source or a much higher resistance to simulate a vacuum tube source. Chose a convienient frequency for the source. Go to: http://home.sandiego.edu/~ekim/e194r.../matcher2.html to calculate an impedance matching network to match the resistance you've chosen to 50 Ohms. Put the matching circuit in the model. Add a transmission line to the model. Terminate the transmission line with a 50 Ohms resistor. Add a fixed frequency AC simulation at the desired frequency. Change various parameters to your heart's content to see what happens. Change the matching network such that the output of your transmitter is no longer 50 Ohms and see what happens. When the QUCS output disagrees with your beliefs, you can argue with the program. Uh, I already did a simulation using LTspice. No one even commented on the simulation as I recall. Besides, I don't really need a simulation to measure the power delivered to a load. That is a *very* simple circuit to calculate in a few seconds. But first we have to agree on what we are discussing. Did you include a transmission line? If not, see TransmissionLineInverter.asc in the \Program Files (x86)\LTC\LTspiceIV\examples\Educational folder to get you started. Do you have EZNEC? I'm not going to retrace this entire conversation, but someone said a matching network which presents a complex impedance with a non-zero real part and a zero imaginary part would reflect 100% of the wave which had been reflected from the antenna back to the transmitter output. I was trying to nail down this example so I could do some calculations on it. If you want to do that I am happy to work on the problem. If not, that's fine too. |
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