On the webpage http://www.crystal-radio.eu/engev.htm the author diagrams a
crystal radio with Rp as the losses in L1 and C1. Then he goes further and
loads L1C1 with an antenna, this reduces Q by 1/2.
He then adds we can calculate the value of Rp as follows: Rp=2.pi.f.L.Q (Q
Unloaded).
My question; Why does he do all further calculations with Rp rather than
1/2Rp, since the Q of L1C1 is
reduced to 1/2 by the antenna loading.
MikeK