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#1
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I was over on comp.dsp exposing my ignorance the other day when it eventually
dawned on me that a frequency multiplier will, in the frequency domain, just convolve whatever the input signal is with itself. This got me to thinking... why is it that frequency multipliers work as well as they do for something like FM? Assuming a sine wave modulating signal, the FM spectra is a sum harmonics with amplitudes dictated by a Bessel function; frequency multiplying this would seem to add new harmonic content to the mix besides just doubling the frequency of what's already present. So... does it turn out, mathematically, that frequency multiplying an FM signal just so happens to end up what nothing more than a "frequency scaled" spectra of what was originally present? Or is some amount of distortion added in the process (assuming perfect mixers used as the frequency multipliers and the DC component of the mixers' outputs removed). I've been told that, in general, frequency multiplier can be effectively applied to most any modulation scheme that has a reasonably constant envelope, e.g., FM, PM, FSK, even QPSK. Is this generally accepted knowledge? Thanks, ---Joel Kolstad |
#2
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Suppose a 1 MHz signal is frequency modulated by a 1 kHz sine wave. The
frequency deviates over some frequency range, for example +/- 5 kHz. If we put that signal into a times-ten multiplier the FM signal is at 10 MHz and the frequency deviatioon is ten times greater (+/- 50 kHz). However, the *rate* at which the 10 MHz signal traverses the greater frequency deviation is still 1 kHz. That does not change and that is what the FM detector output delivers. Bill W0IYH "Joel Kolstad" wrote in message ... I was over on comp.dsp exposing my ignorance the other day when it eventually dawned on me that a frequency multiplier will, in the frequency domain, just convolve whatever the input signal is with itself. This got me to thinking... why is it that frequency multipliers work as well as they do for something like FM? Assuming a sine wave modulating signal, the FM spectra is a sum harmonics with amplitudes dictated by a Bessel function; frequency multiplying this would seem to add new harmonic content to the mix besides just doubling the frequency of what's already present. So... does it turn out, mathematically, that frequency multiplying an FM signal just so happens to end up what nothing more than a "frequency scaled" spectra of what was originally present? Or is some amount of distortion added in the process (assuming perfect mixers used as the frequency multipliers and the DC component of the mixers' outputs removed). I've been told that, in general, frequency multiplier can be effectively applied to most any modulation scheme that has a reasonably constant envelope, e.g., FM, PM, FSK, even QPSK. Is this generally accepted knowledge? Thanks, ---Joel Kolstad |
#3
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From: "Joel Kolstad" on Wed 13 Jul 2005 08:13
I was over on comp.dsp exposing my ignorance the other day when it eventually dawned on me that a frequency multiplier will, in the frequency domain, just convolve whatever the input signal is with itself. This got me to thinking... why is it that frequency multipliers work as well as they do for something like FM? Assuming a sine wave modulating signal, the FM spectra is a sum harmonics with amplitudes dictated by a Bessel function; frequency multiplying this would seem to add new harmonic content to the mix besides just doubling the frequency of what's already present. So... does it turn out, mathematically, that frequency multiplying an FM signal just so happens to end up what nothing more than a "frequency scaled" spectra of what was originally present? Or is some amount of distortion added in the process (assuming perfect mixers used as the frequency multipliers and the DC component of the mixers' outputs removed). No distortion per se, but, in multiplying the carrier by an integer number, you also multiply the deviation by that same number. You do the math, I did that a long, long time ago. :-) I've been told that, in general, frequency multiplier can be effectively applied to most any modulation scheme that has a reasonably constant envelope, e.g., FM, PM, FSK, even QPSK. Is this generally accepted knowledge? It has been accepted - and done - since at least 1939 for FM and PM. The first dedicated radio relay sets for the U.S. military, using Type C Carrier equipment in/out (four voice channels frequency-multiplexed within 12 KHz bandwidth), did that with crystal control, a reactance modulator, and lots of multiplication to reach VHF. See AN/TRC-1, -3, -4 70-90 MHz sets. Long-lived sturdy-bird radios they were. Had there been distortion in the multiplying process, the Carrier equipment it worked with wouldn't have functioned properly. However, it worked just dandy. :-) Most of the early FM radio transmitters were of the crystal oscillator into a reactance modulator and then into Class C frequency multipliers...broadcasting to police car radios. About the only way to get FM or PM in the very early days was by a reactance modulator. In the post-war period there were some specialized tubes made for FM/PM modulation but those are collector's pieces now. Took lots more years before the variable-capacitance diodes appeared to mess with an oscillator's tank for FM. See "Carson's Rule" and things of that nature in a search. [John R. Carson, not of the old Tonight Show...:-) ] |
#4
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Thanks for the detailed reply, Len... I'll sit down and work through some of
the math if/when I get a moment. Could you tell which of the following is correct? -- Say I amplitude modulate my voice onto a carrier and feed it through a frequency multiplier. Besides shifting the carrier, does it just make me sound like a chipmunk (i.e., if I manage to hum a perfect 1kHz sine wave, the demodulated signal is me humming a 2kHz sine wave with a 2x mulitplier)? Or is there far more serious distortion present? ---Joel |
#5
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![]() "Joel Kolstad" ) writes: Thanks for the detailed reply, Len... I'll sit down and work through some of the math if/when I get a moment. Could you tell which of the following is correct? -- Say I amplitude modulate my voice onto a carrier and feed it through a frequency multiplier. Besides shifting the carrier, does it just make me sound like a chipmunk (i.e., if I manage to hum a perfect 1kHz sine wave, the demodulated signal is me humming a 2kHz sine wave with a 2x mulitplier)? Or is there far more serious distortion present? Virtually all multipliers we see work by overdriving a stage. This strips off any amplitude modulation, so there's no modulation at the output of the multiplier. Michael VE2BVW |
#6
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and it will NOT work with QPSK
Mark |
#7
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Mark wrote:
and it will NOT work with QPSK Mark It would work to the extent that if you go 4x you could phase lock for a reference -- but you wouldn't have QPSK any more. -- ------------------------------------------- Tim Wescott Wescott Design Services http://www.wescottdesign.com |
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