On May 24, 11:00*am, RD Sandman wrote:
Red Cloud wrote :



On May 23, 8:46*pm, John Smith wrote:
On 5/23/2011 8:22 PM, Benny Fishhole wrote:

...
That's right, they are now Mexican by the second definition. Now go
tell your illegal bride to go cook up some tacos.

As I said, today, for all practical purposes, "BEANER = INDIAN." *....
end of story ...

If you doubt it, take a look at them, today the majority in my city
are South American Indians ... and here from Brazil, Peru, Guatemala,
etc.

And, like I further said, most do not use the word "mexican" properly
...

Regards,
JS

Well most Hispanics are Mexicans. That's why I use Mexican first
before
Brazilian or Peruvian or other South American National.

I assume you mean most Hispanics who are in the US. *What the term means
is Spanish speaking people or culture. *It also means an American whose
first language is Spanish.


Pwhahahah....You sound like Indian boarding school principle. You
don' t know
the native tongue was demonized by Anglo and Spanish? They said
"Don't speak
native tongue. It's devil talk." OH now you say Spanish is the first
American language. You seem to deny more than 500 Indian dialects
were spoken before
your Spanish colonialist (now anti-Anglo American) gene arrived
here...