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A McDonalds with all whites and NO MEXICANS?!? In California?!?
On May 24, 11:00*am, RD Sandman wrote:
Red Cloud wrote : On May 23, 8:46*pm, John Smith wrote: On 5/23/2011 8:22 PM, Benny Fishhole wrote: ... That's right, they are now Mexican by the second definition. Now go tell your illegal bride to go cook up some tacos. As I said, today, for all practical purposes, "BEANER = INDIAN." *.... end of story ... If you doubt it, take a look at them, today the majority in my city are South American Indians ... and here from Brazil, Peru, Guatemala, etc. And, like I further said, most do not use the word "mexican" properly ... Regards, JS Well most Hispanics are Mexicans. That's why I use Mexican first before Brazilian or Peruvian or other South American National. I assume you mean most Hispanics who are in the US. *What the term means is Spanish speaking people or culture. *It also means an American whose first language is Spanish. Pwhahahah....You sound like Indian boarding school principle. You don' t know the native tongue was demonized by Anglo and Spanish? They said "Don't speak native tongue. It's devil talk." OH now you say Spanish is the first American language. You seem to deny more than 500 Indian dialects were spoken before your Spanish colonialist (now anti-Anglo American) gene arrived here... |
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