Home |
Search |
Today's Posts |
|
#1
![]() |
|||
|
|||
![]()
Gene Fuller wrote:
Cecil Moore wrote: Yes, signals traveling in opposite directions don't interfere. This is a distinction with no technical value. Waves in the same location are subject to the usual rules of linear superposition of the fields. Whether you want to call this "interference" is simply a philosophical choice. Not so. Here's what Eugene Hecht says: "... optical interference corresponds to the interaction of two or more [plane] light waves yielding a resultant irradiance that deviates from the sum of the component irradiances." Superposition can occur with or without interference. If P1 and P2 are the power densities for two plane waves: If Ptot = P1 + P2, there is no interference because the resultant power density does not deviate from the sum of the component power densities. If Ptot P1 + P2, there exists interference because the resultant irradiance does deviate from the sum of the component power densities. There is utterly no scientific distinction that applies to "signals traveling in opposite directions." Interference only occurs when coherent, collinear waves are traveling in the same direction. When they are traveling in opposite directions, standing waves are the result. Let's limit our discussion to plane waves. The mathematical results may look special in the opposite direction case, but the same basic equations apply in all cases. Yes, but boundary conditions apply. The phasors of the plane waves traveling toward each other are rotating in opposite directions so interference is impossible. Here is a slide show about interference which only occurs when the waves are traveling in the same direction. http://astro.gmu.edu/classes/a10594/...8/l08s025.html -- 73, Cecil http://www.w5dxp.com |
#2
![]() |
|||
|
|||
![]()
Cecil Moore wrote:
Gene Fuller wrote: Cecil Moore wrote: Yes, signals traveling in opposite directions don't interfere. This is a distinction with no technical value. Waves in the same location are subject to the usual rules of linear superposition of the fields. Whether you want to call this "interference" is simply a philosophical choice. Not so. Here's what Eugene Hecht says: "... optical interference corresponds to the interaction of two or more [plane] light waves yielding a resultant irradiance that deviates from the sum of the component irradiances." Superposition can occur with or without interference. If P1 and P2 are the power densities for two plane waves: Why do you attribute such magic to the word "interference"? Do you think that Hecht's "interaction" is any different than superposition? What if the waves are not quite anti-parallel, say at an angle of 179 degrees? Is interference now possible? Suppose the waves are only 1 degree from parallel. Does that negate the interference? Repeating: This is a distinction with no technical value. 73, Gene W4SZ |
#3
![]() |
|||
|
|||
![]()
Gene Fuller wrote:
Why do you attribute such magic to the word "interference"? Do you think that Hecht's "interaction" is any different than superposition? It is not magic. "Interference" and "superposition" simply have different definitions. Interference is a subset of superposition, i.e. interference cannot occur without superposition but superposition can occur without interference. This subject is covered in every optics text that I have ever seen, including Born and Wolf. Given two waves of equal power densities (irradiances) if the resultant irradiance is not equal to the sum of the two irradiances, then interference has occurred. What if the waves are not quite anti-parallel, say at an angle of 179 degrees? Is interference now possible? Impossible in a transmission line which is the context. In free space, I would guess that interference is possible in their common direction of travel. Suppose the waves are only 1 degree from parallel. Does that negate the interference? For coherent waves in free space, that would ensure interference until the beams diverged. It should result in the usual light and dark interference rings. Repeating: This is a distinction with no technical value. Maybe it would help if you published a video of you waving your hands as you scream that assertion at the top of your lungs? :-) -- 73, Cecil http://www.w5dxp.com |
#4
![]() |
|||
|
|||
![]()
Cecil Moore wrote:
Gene Fuller wrote: Why do you attribute such magic to the word "interference"? Do you think that Hecht's "interaction" is any different than superposition? It is not magic. "Interference" and "superposition" simply have different definitions. Interference is a subset of superposition, i.e. interference cannot occur without superposition but superposition can occur without interference. This subject is covered in every optics text that I have ever seen, including Born and Wolf. Given two waves of equal power densities (irradiances) if the resultant irradiance is not equal to the sum of the two irradiances, then interference has occurred. What if the waves are not quite anti-parallel, say at an angle of 179 degrees? Is interference now possible? Impossible in a transmission line which is the context. In free space, I would guess that interference is possible in their common direction of travel. Suppose the waves are only 1 degree from parallel. Does that negate the interference? For coherent waves in free space, that would ensure interference until the beams diverged. It should result in the usual light and dark interference rings. Repeating: This is a distinction with no technical value. Maybe it would help if you published a video of you waving your hands as you scream that assertion at the top of your lungs? :-) Cecil, Many people, myself included, treat the term "interference" in a qualitative manner. The general meaning is that two entities somehow interact in a noticeable way, and the result has some signature of that interaction. You appear to use a very precise, quantitative definition of "interference." I do not recall ever seeing such a quantitative definition. Could you please give us a reference or an exact quote from some reasonably reputable source that defines "interference" in a quantitative and unambiguous manner? You imply that some interactions lead to "interference" and some do not. How can the unwashed among us know when the magic occurs and when it does not? 73, Gene W4SZ |
#5
![]() |
|||
|
|||
![]()
Gene Fuller wrote:
... You imply that some interactions lead to "interference" and some do not. How can the unwashed among us know when the magic occurs and when it does not? 73, Gene W4SZ You mean if I just wash it will increase my ability to understand? D*mn man, I would NEVER have thought it possible. Indeed, if most were to suggest that, I would laugh. But, given it is you, ... chuckle And please, take this as a friendly joke! (albeit a poor one) I tire of the religiously devout crying "blasphemy" and posting stones and pitchforks! ROFLOL Warm regards, JS |
#6
![]() |
|||
|
|||
![]()
Gene Fuller wrote:
You appear to use a very precise, quantitative definition of "interference." I do not recall ever seeing such a quantitative definition. Could you please give us a reference or an exact quote from some reasonably reputable source that defines "interference" in a quantitative and unambiguous manner? I've already posted what Eugene Hecht said about interference. In the irradiance (power density) equation, Ptot = P1 + P2 + 2*SQRT(P1*P2)cos(A) the last term is known as the "interference term", page 388 of "Optics" by Hecht. Here's another reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Interference A Google search for "electromagnetic wave interference" yielded 1,650,000 hits. You imply that some interactions lead to "interference" and some do not. How can the unwashed among us know when the magic occurs and when it does not? If the interference term in the above irradiance (power density) equation is not zero, then interference is present. In the s-parameter equation, b1 = s11*a1 + s12*a2, if b1 equals zero while s11, a1, s12, and a2 are not zero, then total destructive interference is present. Assume we superpose two coherent, collinear voltages, V1 and V2: If (V1+V2)^2 V1^2+V2^2, then constructive interference is present. If (V1+V2)^2 V1^2+V2^2, then destructive interference is present. -- 73, Cecil http://www.w5dxp.com |
Reply |
Thread Tools | Search this Thread |
Display Modes | |
|
|
![]() |
||||
Thread | Forum | |||
IC-M710 long distance communication, how long ? | Digital | |||
Non Radiative Energy | Antenna |