Home |
Search |
Today's Posts |
|
#1
![]() |
|||
|
|||
![]()
Why must there be an "it" through which TEM waves proagate? Why cannot
they propagate through nothingness? Because the only thing that can propagate through nothingness is nothing. That should be clear to the most casual observer. Well, yeah, makes sense to me ... but then, apparently not others ... not 100% sure, but yeah, that is where I am at, at the present time. First that "sea" must fill the void to give us a "media" (ocean) to sail ... and most certainly a must for RF/light to propagate through! Regards, JS But if nothingness is something (because it has a name) then you can propagate through it because even nothingness is something so that can be our "media". In fact it must be the perfect medium because it has a velocity factor of 1. |
#2
![]() |
|||
|
|||
![]()
JB wrote:
... But if nothingness is something (because it has a name) then you can propagate through it because even nothingness is something so that can be our "media". In fact it must be the perfect medium because it has a velocity factor of 1. JB: Please, just consider these few words, "You can't 'see' nothing! You can't go 'through nothing' (or, go to nothing)." I know, it is too simple, one wonders how he missed the concept--nothing is just what it means--nothing! You are "seeing something" when you look at space (and, I know, it IS hard to swallow--"time" brings ones' thinking into line on this, or, it worked for me ... ) Regards, JS |
Reply |
Thread Tools | Search this Thread |
Display Modes | |
|
|
![]() |
||||
Thread | Forum | |||
Supporting theory that Antennas "Match" to 377 Ohms (Free space) | Antenna | |||
Equilibrium | Antenna | |||
Gaussian equilibrium | Antenna | |||
Question about free space loss ... | Antenna | |||
Free space pathloss calcs and factor K | Antenna |