Cecil Moore wrote:


Why is it definite? What is the loss in 50 ft. of LMR-400 at the
frequency of interest when the SWR is 50/8 = 6.25:1?


Ok, I need teaching here. Why would the loss change? The loss on the
line is forced to what happens at the nominal 50 ohms doesn't it? The
SWR shouldn't be able to change it unless the voltage limits are hit I
would think. I need an explanation of why it wouldn't be so.

Thanks.

tom
K0TAR