On Thu, 20 Apr 2006 17:45:39 GMT, "Cecil Moore"
wrote:

How does the Vf transition to 0.02 for a resonant coil
occur? That transition is most certainly NOT shown in Fig. 1.

Of course it is shown. Draw a vertical line at 10^-3.
The 10k turns per lamda coil
That is for coil A
has a VF of 0.07.

The 50 turns per lamda
That is for coil B
has a VF of 0.86.
Well, in fact it does not (and nothing shown on the graph along that
ordinal line does).

Do we now hear the pity card played about poor eyesight? Or the pity
card played about poor computational skills (±59%)? Or the pity card
played for the confusion of old age when two coils are substituted in
the old shell game?