On Wed, 15 Oct 2003 02:43:27 +0000 (UTC), Reg Edwards, said...

"budgie" wrote in message
...
On Wed, 15 Oct 2003 02:03:05 +0000 (UTC), "Reg Edwards"
wrote:

Multiply top and bottom of 1/jwC by j (This does not change its value)
and
you get 1/jwC = minus j/wC.

Back to school with your algebra.

His algebra looks perfectly fine to me. But as others have pointed
out, he's left the 2pi out.

------------------------------------------

Yes. I apologise for my remark about school. I gained the incorrect
impression from the previous replies.

The w in wC stands for omega = 2*Pi*F, the angular frequency.

now that were all done playing with j...

don't forget

Z = sqrt{R^2 + [(wL) - (1/wC)]^2]}

and

Z(s) = R + Ls + 1/Cs

which is just plain easier to deal with 'til you need to journey back
into time domain land. no need to leave it f(t) for this deal, though.

all that j stuff... that was scary ****. so easy to make a mistake.
swapping w and f is another good one. only works for f/f stuff.

mike