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"Dwight Stewart" wrote in message link.net...
"Larry Roll K3LT" wrote: (snip) If the Civil War wasn't about racism and slavery, then (snip) If the Civil War was about slavery, then why was there a war at all? Because the states with the most slaves could see that eventually they would either have to face the complete abolition of slavery *or* leave the Union. Prior to the war, the slave states were the majority in both the House and Senate, insuring no legislation could be passed to end slavery. When? Check a map of 1860. There were 19 slave states, of which 4 stayed in the Union. Delaware was a slave state but it did not secede. Slavery was only abolished after the war by not allowing the former Confederate States (which included several, but not all, of the slave states) to participate in that vote. The Emancipation Proclamation was written in 1863. It legally freed most (but not all) of the slaves. The South has a lot to answer for, IMHO. (snip) Why would they have any more to answer for than the Northern states that profited from the sale of slaves? Which states were they? Slavery was abolished in the North by 1804. In many northern states it was abolished before the Constitution was written. Or more to answer for than those who used indentured or bound black workers in the North, even into the early 1900's? Where was that done? Indentured servitude is in no way comparable to slavery, btw. Indentured servants *voluntarily* agree to work for a specified period of time, usually as payment for training or a debt. Or more to answer for than the many countries around the world which practiced slavery in this last century (the 1900's), the previous century, or in the many centuries before that? (snip) Modern-day Rebels with the Confederate flags on their pickup trucks don't do much to heal the wounds of the past. (snip) Perhaps because they have absolutely no responsibility for what happened in a past long before they were born. All depends on what that flag is meant to symbolize. -- Here's what I learned about the War Between the States: First off, it didn't start as a war to end slavery, but rather as a war to keep the Union together. Lincoln's early (1861-1862) writings make it clear his focus *at that time* was on preserving the Union at almost any cost. The Constitution, for all its wisdom, did not have any clear provision for what should be done if one or more state(s) decided that they simply wanted out of the Union at one point or another. When the Constitution was written, there was a fairly even balance between slave and free states. Compromises were reached in order to get the new Union formed as a country rather than a confederation. These were compromises with evil, and they could not last forever. But over time the two parts of the US developed in such radically different ways that the compromises and balance could no longer be maintained. It was clear by 1855 or so that slavery's days were numbered because eventually the abolitionists would reach enough of a political majority to simply outlaw it everywhere. The trend was clear - it was only a matter of time. Revolts like John Brown's and the strengthening abolitionist movement made the moral issue unavoidable, and the Supremes were starting to come around, too. So, given the choice between leaving the Union or abolishing slavery, 15 states tried to leave. Some outside the 15 states said "Let them go", but it was clear to Lincoln and others that if even one state was allowed to secede, the Union would eventually fragment - and those fragments would be ripe for takeover from other countries, many of whom were patiently waiting for the "American experiment" to fail. Once the war began, however, it slowly became clear to Lincoln and many others that what had caused the split in the first place was the idea that a country could proclaim itself "free" and yet allow slavery. It became clear to him that the only way to preserve the Union was to abolish slavery completely. Thus the Emancipation Proclamation and the constitutional amendment. Is any of the above incorrect? What's interesting is that Great Britain, from whom the colonies split on the issue of "all men [sic] are created equal", abolished slavery years before the USA did. 73 de Jim, N2EY |
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#2
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"N2EY" wrote in message om... "Dwight Stewart" wrote in message link.net... "Larry Roll K3LT" wrote: (snip) If the Civil War wasn't about racism and slavery, then (snip) If the Civil War was about slavery, then why was there a war at all? Because the states with the most slaves could see that eventually they would either have to face the complete abolition of slavery *or* leave the Union. Prior to the war, the slave states were the majority in both the House and Senate, insuring no legislation could be passed to end slavery. When? Check a map of 1860. There were 19 slave states, of which 4 stayed in the Union. Delaware was a slave state but it did not secede. Slavery was only abolished after the war by not allowing the former Confederate States (which included several, but not all, of the slave states) to participate in that vote. The Emancipation Proclamation was written in 1863. It legally freed most (but not all) of the slaves. The South has a lot to answer for, IMHO. (snip) Why would they have any more to answer for than the Northern states that profited from the sale of slaves? Which states were they? Slavery was abolished in the North by 1804. In many northern states it was abolished before the Constitution was written. Or more to answer for than those who used indentured or bound black workers in the North, even into the early 1900's? Where was that done? Indentured servitude is in no way comparable to slavery, btw. Indentured servants *voluntarily* agree to work for a specified period of time, usually as payment for training or a debt. Or more to answer for than the many countries around the world which practiced slavery in this last century (the 1900's), the previous century, or in the many centuries before that? (snip) Modern-day Rebels with the Confederate flags on their pickup trucks don't do much to heal the wounds of the past. (snip) Perhaps because they have absolutely no responsibility for what happened in a past long before they were born. All depends on what that flag is meant to symbolize. -- Here's what I learned about the War Between the States: First off, it didn't start as a war to end slavery, but rather as a war to keep the Union together. Lincoln's early (1861-1862) writings make it clear his focus *at that time* was on preserving the Union at almost any cost. The Constitution, for all its wisdom, did not have any clear provision for what should be done if one or more state(s) decided that they simply wanted out of the Union at one point or another. When the Constitution was written, there was a fairly even balance between slave and free states. Compromises were reached in order to get the new Union formed as a country rather than a confederation. These were compromises with evil, and they could not last forever. But over time the two parts of the US developed in such radically different ways that the compromises and balance could no longer be maintained. It was clear by 1855 or so that slavery's days were numbered because eventually the abolitionists would reach enough of a political majority to simply outlaw it everywhere. The trend was clear - it was only a matter of time. Revolts like John Brown's and the strengthening abolitionist movement made the moral issue unavoidable, and the Supremes were starting to come around, too. So, given the choice between leaving the Union or abolishing slavery, 15 states tried to leave. Some outside the 15 states said "Let them go", but it was clear to Lincoln and others that if even one state was allowed to secede, the Union would eventually fragment - and those fragments would be ripe for takeover from other countries, many of whom were patiently waiting for the "American experiment" to fail. Once the war began, however, it slowly became clear to Lincoln and many others that what had caused the split in the first place was the idea that a country could proclaim itself "free" and yet allow slavery. It became clear to him that the only way to preserve the Union was to abolish slavery completely. Thus the Emancipation Proclamation and the constitutional amendment. Is any of the above incorrect? What's interesting is that Great Britain, from whom the colonies split on the issue of "all men [sic] are created equal", abolished slavery years before the USA did. 73 de Jim, N2EY Jim, Much of what you seem to believe is based on the falsehood that the Emancipation Proclamation actually freed slaves. The proclamation ONLY APPLIED to those states in rebellion against the Union. Unfortunately those same states were not a part of the union at the time the proclamation was issued. Thus the proclamation applied to no one under the authority and/or control of the then fragemented Union. The slavery issue was indeed a major part of the root cause of the war between the states. BUT a major other cause was that of states rights. And whether we would be a republic or a federalist government. The struggle continues to this day. We are called a constitutional government, or a republic, or a democracy. The reality is we are none of , and all of that. The founding fathers NEVER intended for the federal government to have so much authority and control over the states. That was a major reason the Southern states left. Lincoln had NO RIGHT, or authorization to FORCE the South to rejoin the union. The whole war was a major mistake, and to the victors go the spoils, and the ones that write the history. You may ask how, or why, do I say these things? Because I was raised in the North, a world class Yankee state of Ohio. I was educated by the Northerners on this subject. And before I came to Alabama I too believed it hook line and sinker. No longer. The South was right. We all lost that war, look at the mess we have in DC now. Think about it. Dan/W4NTI |
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#3
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"Dan/W4NTI" w4nti@get rid of this mindspring.com wrote in message link.net...
"N2EY" wrote in message om... "Dwight Stewart" wrote in message link.net... "Larry Roll K3LT" wrote: (snip) If the Civil War wasn't about racism and slavery, then (snip) If the Civil War was about slavery, then why was there a war at all? Because the states with the most slaves could see that eventually they would either have to face the complete abolition of slavery *or* leave the Union. Prior to the war, the slave states were the majority in both the House and Senate, insuring no legislation could be passed to end slavery. When? Check a map of 1860. There were 19 slave states, of which 4 stayed in the Union. Delaware was a slave state but it did not secede. Slavery was only abolished after the war by not allowing the former Confederate States (which included several, but not all, of the slave states) to participate in that vote. The Emancipation Proclamation was written in 1863. It legally freed most (but not all) of the slaves. The South has a lot to answer for, IMHO. (snip) Why would they have any more to answer for than the Northern states that profited from the sale of slaves? Which states were they? Slavery was abolished in the North by 1804. In many northern states it was abolished before the Constitution was written. Or more to answer for than those who used indentured or bound black workers in the North, even into the early 1900's? Where was that done? Indentured servitude is in no way comparable to slavery, btw. Indentured servants *voluntarily* agree to work for a specified period of time, usually as payment for training or a debt. Or more to answer for than the many countries around the world which practiced slavery in this last century (the 1900's), the previous century, or in the many centuries before that? (snip) Modern-day Rebels with the Confederate flags on their pickup trucks don't do much to heal the wounds of the past. (snip) Perhaps because they have absolutely no responsibility for what happened in a past long before they were born. All depends on what that flag is meant to symbolize. -- Here's what I learned about the War Between the States: First off, it didn't start as a war to end slavery, but rather as a war to keep the Union together. Lincoln's early (1861-1862) writings make it clear his focus *at that time* was on preserving the Union at almost any cost. The Constitution, for all its wisdom, did not have any clear provision for what should be done if one or more state(s) decided that they simply wanted out of the Union at one point or another. When the Constitution was written, there was a fairly even balance between slave and free states. Compromises were reached in order to get the new Union formed as a country rather than a confederation. These were compromises with evil, and they could not last forever. But over time the two parts of the US developed in such radically different ways that the compromises and balance could no longer be maintained. It was clear by 1855 or so that slavery's days were numbered because eventually the abolitionists would reach enough of a political majority to simply outlaw it everywhere. The trend was clear - it was only a matter of time. Revolts like John Brown's and the strengthening abolitionist movement made the moral issue unavoidable, and the Supremes were starting to come around, too. So, given the choice between leaving the Union or abolishing slavery, 15 states tried to leave. Some outside the 15 states said "Let them go", but it was clear to Lincoln and others that if even one state was allowed to secede, the Union would eventually fragment - and those fragments would be ripe for takeover from other countries, many of whom were patiently waiting for the "American experiment" to fail. Once the war began, however, it slowly became clear to Lincoln and many others that what had caused the split in the first place was the idea that a country could proclaim itself "free" and yet allow slavery. It became clear to him that the only way to preserve the Union was to abolish slavery completely. Thus the Emancipation Proclamation and the constitutional amendment. Is any of the above incorrect? What's interesting is that Great Britain, from whom the colonies split on the issue of "all men [sic] are created equal", abolished slavery years before the USA did. 73 de Jim, N2EY Jim, Much of what you seem to believe is based on the falsehood that the Emancipation Proclamation actually freed slaves. The proclamation ONLY APPLIED to those states in rebellion against the Union. That's why I wrote: "It legally freed most (but not all) of the slaves." It did not free any slaves in the states that didn't secede, but those states didn't have many slaves anyway. And although it declared most slaves to be free, in practice almost none of them were actually freed because the union did not control the land where the slaves actually were. Unfortunately those same states were not a part of the union at the time the proclamation was issued. That can be argued both ways. Unionists would say they were in rebellion, secessionists would say they had seceded and were defending themselves against invasion from a foreign country. Thus the proclamation applied to no one under the authority and/or control of the then fragemented Union. The slavery issue was indeed a major part of the root cause of the war between the states. BUT a major other cause was that of states rights. Besides the "right" to have slaves, what rights did the seceding states want that the Union denied them? And whether we would be a republic or a federalist government. The struggle continues to this day. We are called a constitutional government, or a republic, or a democracy. The reality is we are none of , and all of that. We're not a democracy, because that oft-misused word means that issues are directly decided by vote of the people. That's not the case for most issues. We are a constitutional republic, because the power rests primarily with elected representatives but is limited by the Constitution. The founding fathers NEVER intended for the federal government to have so much authority and control over the states. How do you know what they intended? Even if the folks who came to Philadelphia in 1787 did not intend for the federal government to have as much power as it grew to have, one thing is certain: They did not intend for the Constitution to remain a static, unchangeable document. Do you really think that a country which proclaims "all men are created equal, with certain inalienable rights" could long endure if certain men were allowed to *OWN* certain other men? Particularly when those *OWNED*, or their ancestors, had been kidnapped? Even back then, in the case of anything other than a human being, such actions would be declared "dealing in stolen property" and the goal of law enforcement would be to return the stolen property to its rightful owner. Why were human beings treated differently? How can *anyone* argue that an innocent human being not own his/her own life? That was a major reason the Southern states left. So it is claimed. But which rights were they concerned about? Did they not want to pay federal taxes? Lincoln had NO RIGHT, or authorization to FORCE the South to rejoin the union. The whole war was a major mistake, and to the victors go the spoils, and the ones that write the history. That's one interpretation of the Constitution. Another is that states did not have the right to unilaterally secede from an agreement that they had voluntarily entered into with the other states. The US had already tried to operate under a looser system (the Articles of Confederation) and had found them unworkable. You may ask how, or why, do I say these things? Because I was raised in the North, a world class Yankee state of Ohio. I was educated by the Northerners on this subject. And before I came to Alabama I too believed it hook line and sinker. No longer. Then what should Lincoln have done? Simply let the seceding states leave the Union? Once that precedent was set, how long before the "United States" split into more and more fragments? How long before the various fragments were taken over by other world powers, such as England? The South was right. We all lost that war, look at the mess we have in DC now. Think about it. It certainly would have been better if there could have been a nonviolent resolution, but I don't see how that could have happened other than to allow the Union to fragment - and the crime of slavery to continue. By compromising with the evil of slavery, the founders delayed the day of reckoning - and made it that much worse. And I'll ask again: What rights were the seceding states so adamant about keeping that they were willing to fight a war in an attempt to preserve them? 73 de Jim, N2EY |
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#4
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"N2EY" wrote in message om... And I'll ask again: What rights were the seceding states so adamant about keeping that they were willing to fight a war in an attempt to preserve them? From the Southern point of view the North was interfering with the Southern lifestyle. Folks take that real serious down here. The North was applying taxes to Southern goods, the North was sending abolitionists down South to stir up the blacks into insurection. Basically the South saw the North as interfering in what they had no business in. And to this day. The southerners hated Lincoln. And that was the catalist to kick it all off. Jim, you need to come down here a bit, you would understand a bit more. 73 de Jim, N2EY |
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#5
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"N2EY" wrote:
When? Check a map of 1860. There were 19 slave states, of which 4 stayed in the Union. Delaware was a slave state but it did not secede. Depends on the definition of a slave state, I guess. There were 18 Union States and 11 Confederate States. The three border states did not side with either and four of the slave states stayed in the Union. Even if you believe the three border states, and all of the Union States (including the four slave states), would have voted to end slavery, the Union did not have enough numbers to abolish slavery in 1860 had the South not seceded- remember, it takes 2/3rds of the Congress to pass an amendment. Since slavery was not threatened had the South remained in the Union, slavery obviously did not cause them to secede. In other words, the Civil War was not about slavery until the Union (then and now) decided to make it so. Whatever, it is certainly not what the South fought for. The Emancipation Proclamation was written in 1863. It legally freed most (but not all) of the slaves. It freed only the slave in states "now in rebellion against the United States" and listed the specific states. It did not apply to slaves in any state that was not part of the Confederacy (it did not apply to slaves in the Union States). The 13th amendment, passed after the war, ended slavery throughout the United States. Read how the 13th amendment was passed by Congress and later ratified. Which states were they? Slavery was abolished in the North by 1804. In many northern states it was abolished before the Constitution was written. So that makes their accountability less? In essence, you're arguing that the Northern states are somehow better only because slavery ended there before it ended in the South. Here's what I learned about the War Between the States: Fine. Since there are other messages to respond to, I'll ignore the remaining nine paragraphs. Dwight Stewart (W5NET) http://www.qsl.net/w5net/ |
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#6
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"Dwight Stewart" wrote in message link.net...
"N2EY" wrote: When? Check a map of 1860. There were 19 slave states, of which 4 stayed in the Union. Delaware was a slave state but it did not secede. Depends on the definition of a slave state, I guess. There were 18 Union States and 11 Confederate States. The three border states did not side with either and four of the slave states stayed in the Union. You're forgetting at least two states. There were 34 in 1861, but 18+11+3 = 32 Let's look at the states/commonwealths as they were in 1861: Confederate states (formally declared secession, all slave states): 11 (VA, NC, SC, GA, FL, TN, AL, MS, LA, AR, TX) Union states that did not allow slavery: 19 (ME, VT, NH, MA, RI, CT, NY, NJ, PA, OH, IN, IL, MI, WS, IA, MN, KS, OR, CA) Slave states that did not secede: 4 (KY, MO, DE, MD) West Virginia was admitted as a Union state in 1863 by breaking away from the rest of Virginia. "Mountaineers Are Always Free!" Even if you believe the three border states, and all of the Union States (including the four slave states), would have voted to end slavery, the Union did not have enough numbers to abolish slavery in 1860 had the South not seceded- remember, it takes 2/3rds of the Congress to pass an amendment. Check your math, Dwight. 23/34 = 67.64..% - more than the 2/3 needed. It would have taken 23 states to pass such an amendment. 19 nonslave Union states plus only 4 others would have been enough - and that's without West Virginia. Since slavery was not threatened had the South remained in the Union, slavery obviously did not cause them to secede. But slavery *was* threatened, because the trend was clear to see. As the West and Midwest developed, more and more free states would be added. Many of the border states, like Delaware, had a low and decreasing percentage of slaves and slaveholders, so soon they would become de facto free states. (1860 census shows Delaware having a total population of 112,216, of which 1,798 were slaves. That's 1.6%.) In other words, the Civil War was not about slavery until the Union (then and now) decided to make it so. Whatever, it is certainly not what the South fought for. Then what *was* the South fighting for? What rights did the 11 states cherish so greatly that they would secede and fight a war to keep them? The Emancipation Proclamation was written in 1863. It legally freed most (but not all) of the slaves. It freed only the slave in states "now in rebellion against the United States" and listed the specific states. It did not apply to slaves in any state that was not part of the Confederacy (it did not apply to slaves in the Union States). No argument there - but where were most of the slaves? In the Confederate states! The 13th amendment, passed after the war, ended slavery throughout the United States. Read how the 13th amendment was passed by Congress and later ratified. Do you have a problem with how it was done? Consider this: According to the 1860 census, the *MAJORITY* of the population in South Carolina and Mississippi were slaves. Do you think the state governments of those states accurately represented their population's views on the issue? Which states were they? Slavery was abolished in the North by 1804. In many northern states it was abolished before the Constitution was written. So that makes their accountability less? YES! Because: A) they recognized the inherent contradiction of proclaiming "all men are created equal" and then allowing some men to own others. B) they did not have to be forced to abolish it from outside - they did it on their own. C) they did it *generations* before 1861. In essence, you're arguing that the Northern states are somehow better only because slavery ended there before it ended in the South. Is that not correct? I'm not saying the northern states were without any guilt or accountability, or that they never had any slaves. The northern states, by compromising with evil, enabled the slave states to flourish. If someone does business with a thief, they become an accessory to the theft, and share the guilt. It seems like you are arguing that all states are equally guilty, regardless of when they abolished slavery or how the abolition happened. Somehow I find that hard to accept. Here's what I learned about the War Between the States: Fine. Since there are other messages to respond to, I'll ignore the remaining nine paragraphs. Was anything in those nine paragraphs incorrect? And I'll repeat the key question: What rights did the 11 states cherish so greatly that they would secede and fight a war to keep them? 73 de Jim, N2EY |
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#7
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"N2EY" wrote:
You're forgetting at least two states. There were 34 in 1861, but 18+11+3 = 32 The other states did not get involved. There were 18 Union States and 11 Confederate States. California and Oregon wanted nothing to do with the issue or the conflict. The four border states did not secede. But slavery *was* threatened, because the trend was clear to see. As the West and Midwest developed, more and more free states would be added. (snip) The trend was not so clear. Certainly some of the Midwest states, dependant on farming, would want slaves. Then what *was* the South fighting for? What rights did the 11 states cherish so greatly that they would secede and fight a war to keep them? You're looking for an easy answer to a very complex question. I suspect there were as many reason for the conflict as their were people involved. Some of the roots of the Civil War dates back to the Revolutionary War nearly a century earlier, where many Southerners did not want to break with England, sided with England during the conflict, and were persecuted for that afterwards. Others objected to the taxes and tarrifs on farm goods heading overseas, seeing that as similar to what the North objected to leading up to the Revolutionary War and reducing profits from their primary markets. Others saw the attempts for fix market prices on farm goods by Northern firms as a threat to free markets (and were angry the government did nothing to stop the practice). Others objected to what they saw as efforts by Northern States to limit the political influence of the Southern States. The list goes on and on (and I certainly don't have the time to go on and on here). No argument there - but where were most of the slaves? In the Confederate states! Only if you ignore indentured, bound, or apprentice, workers in the North. These were people purchased at slave auctions (blacks), or from poor families (whites), and given contracts to work for years in Northern factories to hopefully earn their eventual freedom. Ben Franklin and his maternal grandmother were both once apprentice workers. She married the man who held her contract. Ben Franklin escaped to Philadelphia (breaking his contract and the laws). The only differences between this and outright slavery were the legal papers and the idea of possible freedom some day. Of course, because of the working conditions, few ever lived long enough to be free. This practice continued long after slavery was abolished. Dwight Stewart (W5NET) http://www.qsl.net/w5net/ |
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#8
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In article .net, "Dwight
Stewart" writes: "N2EY" wrote: You're forgetting at least two states. There were 34 in 1861, but 18+11+3 = 32 The other states did not get involved. There were 18 Union States and 11 Confederate States. California and Oregon wanted nothing to do with the issue or the conflict. The four border states did not secede. They were involved to the extent that they supported the Union cause financially and politically. You previously claimed that "slavery was not threatened" because the free states could not get the needed 2/3 majority. I showed that was simply not true - it would have taken 23 states of the 34. It's not a coincidence that 11 states (34-23=11) seceded. But slavery *was* threatened, because the trend was clear to see. As the West and Midwest developed, more and more free states would be added. (snip) The trend was not so clear. Certainly some of the Midwest states, dependant on farming, would want slaves. Not at all! Iowa, Minnesota, Wisconsin, Indiana, Illinois...all farming states back then, all free. The simple fact was that more free states than slave states were being admitted, and that as time went on the days of slavery were numbered - unless the Union were broken. Then what *was* the South fighting for? What rights did the 11 states cherish so greatly that they would secede and fight a war to keep them? You're looking for an easy answer to a very complex question. I'm looking for the facts. Some of those facts may not be things anyone today is proud of. I'm not proud that the founders could "proclaim liberty" and say "all men are created equal" and then allow slavery to exist in their country. I suspect there were as many reason for the conflict as their were people involved. I'm looking for the facts. Some of the roots of the Civil War dates back to the Revolutionary War nearly a century earlier, where many Southerners did not want to break with England, sided with England during the conflict, and were persecuted for that afterwards. Others objected to the taxes and tarrifs on farm goods heading overseas, seeing that as similar to what the North objected to leading up to the Revolutionary War and reducing profits from their primary markets. The Constitution forbid tariffs and taxes on exports. Only imports could be taxed or tarriffed. This was obvious economic protectionism. Others saw the attempts for fix market prices on farm goods by Northern firms as a threat to free markets (and were angry the government did nothing to stop the practice). In very broad terms, the problem was that the North industrialized and the South stayed agrarian. The North rejected slavery in favor of immigration, while the South allowed slavery to grow to the extent that by 1860 in at least two states the number of slaves exceeded the number of free people. Others objected to what they saw as efforts by Northern States to limit the political influence of the Southern States. That game was played both ways. The original Constitution counted 60% of the slave population when allocating seats in the House of Representatives - but no slaves were allowed to vote! So the slave states had a built-in political advantage over the North, based on the illogical and immoral idea that a slave was not a human being when it came to rights, but *was* a human being - or rather 60% of a human being - when it came time to determine the political population. Was that fair in any way? The list goes on and on (and I certainly don't have the time to go on and on here). The point is simple: Slavery was at the bottom of all those causes. It was the root cause of the differences in economy, politics and culture that caused 11 states to secede. No argument there - but where were most of the slaves? In the Confederate states! Only if you ignore indentured, bound, or apprentice, workers in the North. Those were not slaves. These were people purchased at slave auctions (blacks), or from poor families (whites), and given contracts to work for years in Northern factories to hopefully earn their eventual freedom. They had *contracts* - BIG difference! Which is completely different from being enslaved *forever*, together with all of your children. Most indentured servants worked out their contracts and became free. Most slaves never did. Indentured and bound workers were (for the most part) working off debts. It was common practice for poor European immigrants to indenture themselves for 7 years to pay for their transatlantic passage. After that 7 years, they were free. Apprentices traded their labor for education, working a set number of years in order to learn a skilled trade. In most cases those workers entered into the contract *voluntarily*. And the contract had a definite time limit. Those contracts were valid because both parties got something of value. Slaves, on the other hand, were simply *stolen* from their homes by raiders and shipped off. They received *nothing* for their work and had no choice in the matter. There was no limit on their service. Ben Franklin and his maternal grandmother were both once apprentice workers. Were they dragged from their homes in chains and sent thousands of miles away, to work the rest of their lives in a strange place with little hope of freedom? Or was it a voluntary, temporary agreement for economic and educational reasons? She married the man who held her contract. How many slaves did that? Ben Franklin escaped to Philadelphia (breaking his contract and the laws). Yep - he stole a few years labor from the man who held the contract. I understand that later on he paid off the contract. The only differences between this and outright slavery were the legal papers and the idea of possible freedom some day. WRONG! There's also the fact that the apprentices were not stolen from their homes and dragged away against their will. Of course, because of the working conditions, few ever lived long enough to be free. This practice continued long after slavery was abolished. That's simply not true. Most indentured servants worked out their 7 years and were freed. In fact, indentured servants were used widely in the colonies before the revolution, but in the South the practice became unpopular because the plantation owners were always having to buy new contracts and the now freed indentured servants were setting up their own plantations using skills and knowledge learned while indentured. We still have contract labor today. Actors, athletes and executives, to name a few, sign contracts where they agree to work for a certain period of time and receive certain benefits. Both sides are legally bound by the contract. To equate the immoral horror of slavery with contract labor is simply not valid in any way. |
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#9
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"N2EY" wrote:
Dwight Stewart wrote: (my comments here snipped) I'm looking for the facts. Some of those facts may not be things anyone today is proud of. I'm not proud that the founders could "proclaim liberty" and say "all men are created equal" and then allow slavery to exist in their country. In very broad terms, the problem was that the North industrialized and the South stayed agrarian. The North rejected slavery in favor of immigration, while the South allowed slavery to grow to the extent that by 1860 in at least two states the number of slaves exceeded the number of free people. Blacks were obviosuly held as slaves in the South (nobody has denied that) and I've acknowledged that slavery played a role in the Civil War (the Emac. Proc. shows that). I simply don't agree slavery was the cause and have given some reasons why - which you've either ignored or tried to downplay. At the same time, you've pointed your finger at everyone else (the South, the founders, and just about anyone else you can think of) while ignoring or downplaying your own State's involvement in the slave trade. Above, you said the North rejected slavery. In another message, you said they did so before they were forced to do so. Both are true. But what you didn't say is that both are just barely true when it comes to your State. According to the Central Pennsylvania African American History Web Site (www.afrolumens.org/slavery/), quoting from the Pennsylvania State Archives (Harrisburg), slaves were owned in Pennsylvania as late as 1842, only 18 years before the Civil War. Seems like your State got out of the slave trade just in the nick of time - just in the nick of time for you to look down your nose at others today. Only if you ignore indentured, bound, or apprentice, workers in the North. Those were not slaves. It was simply slavery by a different name. Most were sold into indentured servitude (especially the very poor and blacks) and were held in that situation by force of law. Most blacks were sold into lifelong servitude. Indentured workers serving fixed terms were rarely paid, instead promised money or land afterwards. Of those who were supposedly paid, the money was often collected back to cover the costs of the employer. Their working and living conditions were horrible. Many, if not most, were abused by their employers and, because of working conditions or abuse, many died before completing their indenture. Of those who did serve out their terms, evidence suggests most remained poor afterwards, routinely deprived of the things they were promised. [Source: America, A Narrative History, pgs 118-121, Norton & Company Publishing, New York/London] They had *contracts* - BIG difference! See paragraph above. Indentured and bound workers were (for the most part) working off debts. It was common practice for poor European immigrants to indenture themselves for 7 years to pay for their transatlantic passage. After that 7 years, they were free. Yes, probably half the white settlers from England, Ireland, and Germany, entered the country using this method. But we're talking about blacks, not white settlers from Europe (the living and working conditions were rarely the same). Dwight Stewart (W5NET) http://www.qsl.net/w5net/ |
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