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![]() "Jeff Liebermann" wrote in message news ![]() Nor did I say there was. The phenomenon of interference between two compression waves in a given medium is not an example of "mixing." You didn't say that. You that a beat note would be produced. From your posting at: http://groups.google.com/group/sci.electronics.basics/msg/f18c6dfefbd55a82 "An audible beat tone is produced by the constructive and destructive interference between two sound waves in air." That's wrong. There's no audible beat note produced in the air. Sigh - which, again, is as I explained it further on. I said that there is no actual component at the "beat" frequency. You do HEAR a "beat," however, and that is the result of the amplitude variation caused by the interference, as noted. You cannot hear the beat effect (I won't use the word "tone" here, which I admit was a possible source of confusion in the original wording) if the two original tones are too far apart, simply because you can only perceive such amplitude variations if they occur below a certain rate. I have never ever said that "mixing" (multiplication) occurs in air. If you're going to pick apart what someone is saying, then please read everything they've said before starting. And whether or not you READ all the postings in a thread is one thing - whether or not you choose to respond to a given posting out of its context is something else entirely. Bob M. |
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