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#1
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On Wed, 15 Oct 2003 02:43:27 +0000 (UTC), Reg Edwards, said...
"budgie" wrote in message ... On Wed, 15 Oct 2003 02:03:05 +0000 (UTC), "Reg Edwards" wrote: Multiply top and bottom of 1/jwC by j (This does not change its value) and you get 1/jwC = minus j/wC. Back to school with your algebra. His algebra looks perfectly fine to me. But as others have pointed out, he's left the 2pi out. ------------------------------------------ Yes. I apologise for my remark about school. I gained the incorrect impression from the previous replies. The w in wC stands for omega = 2*Pi*F, the angular frequency. now that were all done playing with j... don't forget Z = sqrt{R^2 + [(wL) - (1/wC)]^2]} and Z(s) = R + Ls + 1/Cs which is just plain easier to deal with 'til you need to journey back into time domain land. no need to leave it f(t) for this deal, though. all that j stuff... that was scary ****. so easy to make a mistake. swapping w and f is another good one. only works for f/f stuff. mike |
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#2
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"budgie" wrote in message ... On Wed, 15 Oct 2003 02:03:05 +0000 (UTC), "Reg Edwards" wrote: Multiply top and bottom of 1/jwC by j (This does not change its value) and you get 1/jwC = minus j/wC. Back to school with your algebra. His algebra looks perfectly fine to me. But as others have pointed out, he's left the 2pi out. ------------------------------------------ Yes. I apologise for my remark about school. I gained the incorrect impression from the previous replies. The w in wC stands for omega = 2*Pi*F, the angular frequency. |
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#3
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On Wed, 15 Oct 2003 02:03:05 +0000 (UTC), "Reg Edwards"
wrote: Multiply top and bottom of 1/jwC by j (This does not change its value) and you get 1/jwC = minus j/wC. Back to school with your algebra. His algebra looks perfectly fine to me. But as others have pointed out, he's left the 2pi out. |
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#5
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Multiply top and bottom of 1/jwC by j (This does not change its value) and
you get 1/jwC = minus j/wC. Back to school with your algebra. |
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